HESI RN
Mental Health HESI
1. A client who has agoraphobia (a fear of crowds) is starting desensitization therapy with the therapist, and the nurse is reinforcing the process. Which intervention has the highest priority for this client's plan of care?
- A. Encourage the substitution of positive thoughts for negative ones.
- B. Establish trust by providing a calm, safe environment.
- C. Gradually expose the client to larger crowds.
- D. Encourage deep breathing when anxiety escalates in a crowd.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Establishing trust by providing a calm and safe environment is crucial for the success of desensitization therapy in clients with agoraphobia. This approach helps the client feel safe and secure, allowing them to gradually confront their fear of crowds. Encouraging positive thoughts (choice A) is beneficial but not as immediately critical as creating a safe space. Progressively exposing the client to larger crowds (choice C) should occur after trust is established and in a controlled manner. Encouraging deep breathing (choice D) is helpful, but creating a safe environment takes precedence to build a foundation for successful desensitization.
2. The nurse accepts a transfer to the mental health unit and understands that the client is distractible and is exhibiting a decreased ability to concentrate. The nurse has only 15 minutes to talk with the client. To develop a treatment plan for this client, which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. Motivation for treatment
- B. History of substance use
- C. Medication compliance
- D. Mental status examination
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A mental status examination is the most important assessment for the nurse to obtain in this scenario. It provides a comprehensive view of the client's current cognitive functioning, including their level of alertness, orientation, memory, attention, and thought process. Understanding the client's mental status is crucial for developing an appropriate treatment plan. The other options, such as motivation for treatment, history of substance use, and medication compliance, are important aspects to consider but may not directly address the client's current cognitive state and immediate treatment needs as effectively as a mental status examination.
3. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is stabilized on a mood stabilizer and has been prescribed lamotrigine (Lamictal). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Decrease in manic episodes.
- B. Improvement in depressive symptoms.
- C. Reduction in anxiety symptoms.
- D. Increased sleep duration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improvement in depressive symptoms. Lamotrigine is commonly used as a mood stabilizer and is particularly effective in managing depressive symptoms in bipolar disorder. While it may also help with preventing manic episodes, its primary indication is for treating depressive symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because lamotrigine is not specifically indicated for reducing manic episodes, anxiety symptoms, or increasing sleep duration in bipolar disorder.
4. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse’s station in a laterally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Medicate the client with the prescribed antipsychotic thioridazine (Mellaril).
- B. Offer the client a prescribed physical therapy hot pack for muscle spasms.
- C. Administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia.
- D. Direct the client to occupational therapy to distract him from somatic complaints.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client is experiencing a dystonic reaction due to dopamine depletion, which is a known side effect of Risperidone. Dystonia presents as abnormal muscle contractions and postures. The immediate management for this side effect is the administration of an anticholinergic medication like Benztropine (Cogentin). Choice A is incorrect as thioridazine is not the recommended medication for dystonic reactions. Choice B is incorrect as a hot pack would not effectively address the underlying cause of the dystonic reaction. Choice D is incorrect as occupational therapy is not the appropriate intervention for managing acute dystonia.
5. A male adolescent was admitted to the unit two days ago for depression. When the mental health nurse tries to interview the client to establish rapport, he becomes very irritated and sarcastic. Which action is best for the nurse to take?
- A. Offer to play a game of cards with the client.
- B. Report the behavior to the next shift.
- C. Document the behavior in the chart.
- D. Plan to talk with the client the next day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Offering to play a game of cards with the adolescent is the best action for the nurse to take in this situation. Engaging in an activity like playing a game can help establish rapport with the adolescent as it provides a more relaxed and non-threatening environment for communication. This approach can help the adolescent feel more comfortable and open up, as adolescents often find it easier to communicate when involved in an activity. Reporting the behavior to the next shift, documenting the behavior, or planning to talk with the client the next day do not directly address the immediate need to establish rapport and improve communication with the adolescent.
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