Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Decrease the rate of TPN infusion.
• C. Administer an antiemetic as prescribed.
• D. Check the client's TPN bag for solution accuracy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when a client receiving TPN is experiencing nausea and vomiting is to check the client's TPN bag for solution accuracy. This is crucial to ensure that the correct solution is being administered and to address any potential errors. Checking the blood glucose level or administering an antiemetic may be necessary interventions but addressing the TPN bag's accuracy should be the priority to prevent any complications related to incorrect TPN solution.

2. What is the primary purpose of the logrolling technique for turning?

• A. To decrease the risk of back injury by working together.
• B. To maintain straight spinal alignment.
• C. To increase client safety by using two or three people.
• D. To reduce the likelihood of skin damage by turning instead of pulling.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To maintain straight spinal alignment. Logrolling is a technique used to carefully turn a client while keeping the spine in a straight line, especially important for those with spinal injuries or after back surgery. Choice A is incorrect because the primary purpose is not specifically to decrease the risk of back injury but to ensure safe turning. Choice C is incorrect as the main aim is not to increase client safety by using multiple people but to protect the spine. Choice D is incorrect because the primary purpose of logrolling is not to prevent skin damage but to safeguard the spine during turning.

3. An older adult client with heart failure (HF) and hypertension (HTN) is receiving atenolol, furosemide, and enalapril. Which assessments are essential to evaluate the effectiveness of the medications?

• A. Bowel sounds and daily weight.
• B. Daily weight and blood pressure.
• C. Heart sounds and range of motion.
• D. Monitor for evidence of hypokalemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring daily weight and blood pressure is crucial to assess the effectiveness of diuretics (furosemide) and antihypertensives (atenolol, enalapril) in managing heart failure and hypertension. Changes in weight indicate fluid status, while blood pressure readings reflect the control of hypertension. Assessing bowel sounds and range of motion are important but not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of these specific medications in this scenario. Monitoring for hypokalemia is important due to furosemide's potential side effect, but it is not the primary assessment to evaluate medication effectiveness.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic heart failure who is receiving digoxin therapy. The nurse reviews the client's lab results and notes that the serum potassium level is 3.0 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Administer a potassium supplement
• B. Notify the healthcare provider
• C. Hold the next dose of digoxin
• D. Increase dietary potassium intake

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients receiving digoxin therapy, low potassium levels can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, when the nurse notes a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L, it is crucial to hold the next dose of digoxin. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to ensure appropriate interventions, such as potassium supplementation, can be implemented. Administering a potassium supplement without healthcare provider guidance may lead to rapid potassium level changes and potential adverse effects. Increasing dietary potassium intake alone may not promptly address the low serum potassium level in this acute situation.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube following lung surgery. What is the most important intervention to ensure the chest tube functions properly?

• A. Clamp the tube if there is excessive drainage
• B. Empty the drainage chamber every 2 hours
• C. Keep the drainage system below chest level
• D. Milk the tube to prevent clots from forming

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Keeping the chest tube drainage system below chest level ensures that gravity assists with drainage and prevents fluid or air from flowing back into the pleural space, which could compromise lung function. Clamping the tube if there is excessive drainage (choice A) is incorrect as it can lead to a buildup of pressure and compromise the drainage system. Emptying the drainage chamber every 2 hours (choice B) is important but not as crucial as maintaining the drainage system below chest level. Milking the tube to prevent clots from forming (choice D) is incorrect and could lead to complications such as tube occlusion or damage to the tissue.

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