a client receiving total parenteral nutrition tpn is experiencing nausea and vomiting what is the nurses first action
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What is the nurse's first action?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when a client receiving TPN is experiencing nausea and vomiting is to check the client's TPN bag for solution accuracy. This is crucial to ensure that the correct solution is being administered and to address any potential errors. Checking the blood glucose level or administering an antiemetic may be necessary interventions but addressing the TPN bag's accuracy should be the priority to prevent any complications related to incorrect TPN solution.

2. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions regarding the administration of alendronate (Fosamax)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alendronate (Fosamax) should be taken with a full glass of water in the morning to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. Choice A is incorrect because taking alendronate at bedtime increases the risk of esophageal irritation due to lying down. Choice C is incorrect because patients should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking alendronate to prevent esophageal irritation. Choice D is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with food, to enhance absorption.

3. A client with a ruptured spleen underwent an emergency splenectomy. Twelve hours later, the client’s urine output is 25 ml/hour. What is the most likely cause?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria, or decreased urine output, after surgery can indicate tubular necrosis due to hypoperfusion, which may require intervention to restore renal function. Choice A is incorrect as oliguria is not a normal finding after surgery. Choice C is incorrect because dehydration is less likely in this context compared to tubular necrosis. Choice D is incorrect as a urine output of 25 ml/hour is not expected after splenectomy and should raise concern for renal impairment.

4. An S3 heart sound is auscultated in a client in her third trimester of pregnancy. What intervention should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An S3 heart sound is often a normal finding in pregnant women due to increased blood volume and cardiac output. The nurse should document the finding as part of the routine assessment unless accompanied by other abnormal symptoms. Performing a 12-lead electrocardiogram (Choice A) is unnecessary for a normal S3 heart sound in pregnancy. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice C) is premature and may lead to unnecessary interventions. Assessing for signs of heart failure (Choice D) is not indicated as an isolated S3 heart sound is typically benign in pregnancy.

5. A client is newly prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder. Which finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Fine hand tremors noted after starting lithium are an early sign of lithium toxicity. It is crucial to report this finding to the healthcare provider promptly. Adjusting the dose or monitoring serum levels more closely may be necessary to prevent further toxicity. Choice A, a serum lithium level of 1.2 mEq/L, is within the therapeutic range (0.6-1.2 mEq/L) for treating bipolar disorder. Choice C, a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg, and Choice D, a serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L, are within normal limits and not directly related to lithium therapy or toxicity.

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