a client presents to the emergency department with a severe exacerbation of asthma the nurse notes that the client is using accessory muscles to breat
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client presents to the emergency department with a severe exacerbation of asthma. The nurse notes that the client is using accessory muscles to breathe and has an oxygen saturation of 86%. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The first priority in an acute asthma exacerbation is to administer oxygen to improve the client's oxygen saturation. In this scenario, the client has a low oxygen saturation level of 86%, indicating hypoxemia, which can be life-threatening. Administering oxygen therapy will help improve oxygenation and support vital organ function. Once the oxygen levels are stabilized, further interventions such as bronchodilators can be implemented. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position may also be beneficial, but ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence in this critical situation. Obtaining a peak flow reading is important for asthma management but is not the first intervention needed in a client with severe hypoxemia.

2. A client is admitted to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The client has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 10. What does this score indicate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 10 falls into the range of moderate impairment, indicating the need for further assessment and monitoring. A GCS score of 10 suggests that the client is moderately impaired neurologically. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a GCS score of 10 does not indicate mild impairment, severe impairment, or normal neurological status, respectively.

3. The nurse is providing care for a client with severe peripheral arterial disease (PAD). The client reports a history of rest ischemia, with leg pain that occurs during the night. Which action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Providing warmth can help dilate peripheral vessels and increase blood flow, relieving ischemic pain. In PAD, where there is already compromised blood flow, elevating the legs or applying cold therapy could worsen ischemic pain by further reducing blood flow to the extremities. Encouraging ambulation and leg exercises may be beneficial in other conditions but not suitable for clients with severe PAD experiencing rest ischemia.

4. A client receiving codeine for pain every 4 to 6 hours over 4 days. Which assessment should the nurse perform before administering the next dose?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Auscultate the bowel sounds. Codeine is known to cause constipation, so it is essential to assess bowel sounds before administering another dose to monitor for potential constipation or bowel motility issues. Palpating the ankles for edema (Choice B) is not directly related to codeine use or its side effects. Observing the skin for bruising (Choice C) is important but not specifically associated with codeine administration. Measuring body temperature (Choice D) is not a priority assessment related to codeine use; monitoring for constipation is more critical in this case.

5. A client with severe dehydration is admitted to the hospital. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An increase in urine output is a reliable indicator that the client's hydration status is improving. This reflects adequate fluid replacement and improved kidney function. Choice A is subjective and may not always indicate improved hydration. Choice C, while a positive sign, may be influenced by other factors such as medications or pain. Choice D, skin turgor returning to normal, is a delayed indicator of hydration status and may take time to improve even after hydration is initiated.

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