HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client presents to the emergency department with a severe exacerbation of asthma. The nurse notes that the client is using accessory muscles to breathe and has an oxygen saturation of 86%. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
- B. Obtain a peak flow reading
- C. Administer a bronchodilator
- D. Administer oxygen therapy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The first priority in an acute asthma exacerbation is to administer oxygen to improve the client's oxygen saturation. In this scenario, the client has a low oxygen saturation level of 86%, indicating hypoxemia, which can be life-threatening. Administering oxygen therapy will help improve oxygenation and support vital organ function. Once the oxygen levels are stabilized, further interventions such as bronchodilators can be implemented. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position may also be beneficial, but ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence in this critical situation. Obtaining a peak flow reading is important for asthma management but is not the first intervention needed in a client with severe hypoxemia.
2. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports a weak pulse of 44 beats per minute in a client. What action should the charge nurse implement?
- A. Have the UAP recheck the pulse and report back.
- B. Have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for apical-radial pulse deficit.
- C. Call the healthcare provider for further instructions.
- D. Immediately call the healthcare provider and prepare for transfer to critical care.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action is to have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for an apical-radial pulse deficit. This assessment can provide further information about the client’s cardiovascular status and help determine if further intervention is necessary. Having the UAP recheck the pulse may delay appropriate assessment and intervention. Calling the healthcare provider for further instructions may not be necessary at this point unless the LPN assessment indicates a need for it. Immediately transferring the client to critical care without further assessment is not warranted based solely on the initial report of a weak pulse.
3. The nurse is instructing a 65-year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis. The most important instruction regarding exercise would be to
- A. Exercise doing weight-bearing activities
- B. Exercise to reduce weight
- C. Avoid exercise activities that increase the risk of fracture
- D. Exercise to strengthen muscles and thereby protect bones
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Weight-bearing exercises are crucial in managing osteoporosis as they help strengthen bones. Choice A is the correct answer because weight-bearing activities, such as walking, dancing, or weight training, help stimulate bone formation and strengthen bones, which is essential in managing osteoporosis. Choice B is incorrect as the primary focus should be on the type of exercise rather than weight reduction. Choice C is incorrect because avoiding exercise altogether can lead to further bone density loss, and it is important to engage in safe weight-bearing activities. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of exercise in osteoporosis is to improve bone density through weight-bearing activities.
4. A client with hyperparathyroidism is preparing for surgery. Which preoperative lab finding is most important to report?
- A. Elevated serum calcium.
- B. Decreased serum albumin.
- C. Elevated serum potassium.
- D. Elevated serum magnesium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated serum calcium. In hyperparathyroidism, elevated calcium levels can lead to complications such as kidney stones, bone pain, and fractures. During surgery, high calcium levels can affect neuromuscular function, cardiac function, and blood clotting. Therefore, it is crucial to report elevated serum calcium levels preoperatively to prevent potential surgical complications. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with hyperparathyroidism and are less likely to impact the surgical outcome in this scenario.
5. A client with acute pancreatitis is prescribed nothing by mouth (NPO). What should the nurse prioritize in this client's care?
- A. Administer oral pain medication.
- B. Monitor the client's intake and output.
- C. Monitor the client for signs of infection.
- D. Insert a nasogastric tube for decompression.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's intake and output. When a client with acute pancreatitis is prescribed nothing by mouth (NPO), the nurse should prioritize monitoring the client's intake and output. This is crucial for assessing the client's fluid balance and ensuring that they are not becoming dehydrated or developing complications related to fluid status. Option A is incorrect because oral pain medication should not be administered to a client who is NPO. Option C is not the priority at this time, although monitoring for infection is important in the overall care of the client. Option D is not the initial priority unless there are specific indications for decompression, which would be determined by the healthcare provider.
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