Nursing Elites

1. A client presents to the emergency department with a severe exacerbation of asthma. The nurse notes that the client is using accessory muscles to breathe and has an oxygen saturation of 86%. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
• B. Obtain a peak flow reading
• C. Administer a bronchodilator
• D. Administer oxygen therapy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The first priority in an acute asthma exacerbation is to administer oxygen to improve the client's oxygen saturation. In this scenario, the client has a low oxygen saturation level of 86%, indicating hypoxemia, which can be life-threatening. Administering oxygen therapy will help improve oxygenation and support vital organ function. Once the oxygen levels are stabilized, further interventions such as bronchodilators can be implemented. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position may also be beneficial, but ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence in this critical situation. Obtaining a peak flow reading is important for asthma management but is not the first intervention needed in a client with severe hypoxemia.

2. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin and reports tarry stools. What should the nurse do?

• A. Prepare to administer warfarin.
• B. Assess characteristics of the client's pain.
• C. Monitor stools for blood and review PTT results.
• D. Continue the heparin and prepare to administer Vitamin K.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client on heparin reports tarry stools, it can be indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding. The correct action for the nurse is to monitor the stools for blood and review the Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) results. This is essential to detect any potential bleeding complications associated with heparin therapy. Option A is incorrect because warfarin is not the immediate intervention for tarry stools in a client on heparin. Option B is irrelevant to the situation described. Option D is incorrect as Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, not heparin.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage oral hydration
• B. Monitor for signs of dehydration
• C. Restrict fluid intake
• D. Administer IV fluids as prescribed

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In SIADH, there is excessive ADH secretion leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. The most crucial intervention is to restrict fluid intake to prevent further fluid overload and worsening of hyponatremia. Encouraging oral hydration (choice A) would exacerbate the condition by adding more fluids. Monitoring for signs of dehydration (choice B) is not appropriate as the client is at risk of fluid overload. Administering IV fluids (choice D) would worsen the hyponatremia and should be avoided.

4. Which dietary instruction is most important for a client with renal disease?

• A. Avoid all protein-rich foods.
• B. Limit fluid intake to 1500 ml/day.
• C. Increase potassium intake to prevent weakness.
• D. Eat small, frequent meals high in carbohydrates.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important dietary instruction for a client with renal disease is to limit fluid intake to 1500 ml/day. This is essential to prevent fluid overload, manage electrolyte balance, and reduce strain on the kidneys. Choice A is incorrect because while protein restriction may be necessary in some cases, avoiding all protein-rich foods is not recommended as some protein intake is essential for overall health. Choice C is incorrect because increasing potassium intake is generally not advised for clients with renal disease, as they often need to limit potassium intake. Choice D is also incorrect because while consuming small, frequent meals may be helpful, emphasizing a diet high in carbohydrates is not typically the primary focus for clients with renal disease.

5. A client with chronic heart failure is admitted with worsening dyspnea. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula.
• B. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
• C. Assess the client's lung sounds.
• D. Reposition the client to relieve dyspnea.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure experiencing worsening dyspnea, the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula. This helps improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress. Administering a diuretic (Choice B) may be necessary but addressing oxygenation comes first. While assessing lung sounds (Choice C) is important, it is not the immediate priority when the client is in respiratory distress. Repositioning the client (Choice D) may help with comfort but does not address the underlying issue of inadequate oxygenation.

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