HESI RN
Pharmacology HESI Quizlet
1. A client is taking ticlopidine hydrochloride (Ticlid). The nurse tells the client to avoid which of the following while taking this medication?
- A. Vitamin C
- B. Vitamin D
- C. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
- D. Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ticlopidine hydrochloride is a platelet aggregation inhibitor. Aspirin or any aspirin-containing product should be avoided as they can precipitate or aggravate bleeding by affecting platelet function and increasing the risk of bleeding complications.
2. What cell structure is responsible for efficiently packaging DNA into a small volume to fit into the nucleus of a cell and protect the DNA structure and sequence?
- A. Golgi apparatus
- B. Chromatin
- C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
- D. Mitochondria
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Chromatin is the correct answer. Chromatin is responsible for packaging DNA into a more compact, dense structure to fit into the nucleus and protect the DNA. The Golgi apparatus is involved in processing and packaging proteins, not DNA. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is involved in lipid metabolism and detoxification. Mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of the cell responsible for energy production, not DNA packaging.
3. The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX). The nurse learns that the patient takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. To monitor for drug interactions, the nurse will request an order for which laboratory test(s)?
- A. A complete blood count
- B. BUN and creatinine
- C. Electrolytes
- D. Glucose
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C. Electrolytes.' When trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is taken with an ACE inhibitor, there is an increased risk of hyperkalemia due to the combined effects on potassium levels. Monitoring electrolytes, specifically potassium, is essential to detect and manage this potential drug interaction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important tests in general patient care, they are not specifically indicated to monitor for the drug interaction between TMP-SMX and ACE inhibitors.
4. Culdoscopy is a procedure performed to examine the rectouterine pouch and pelvic viscera through:
- A. The posterior vaginal wall
- B. The anterior vaginal wall
- C. The abdominal wall
- D. The rectal wall
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Culdoscopy is a procedure that involves examining the rectouterine pouch and pelvic viscera through the posterior vaginal wall. This approach allows direct visualization and access to the pelvic area. The other choices are incorrect because culdoscopy specifically involves entering through the posterior vaginal wall to reach the specified anatomical structures. The anterior vaginal wall, abdominal wall, and rectal wall are not the access points used in culdoscopy.
5. A client has undergone insertion of a permanent pacemaker. When developing a discharge teaching plan, the nurse writes a goal of, 'The client will verbalize symptoms of pacemaker failure.' Which symptoms are most important to teach the client?
- A. Facial flushing.
- B. Fever.
- C. Pounding headache.
- D. Feelings of dizziness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Feelings of dizziness.' Feelings of dizziness may occur as a result of a decreased heart rate, leading to decreased cardiac output, which can be an indication of pacemaker failure. Teaching the client to recognize symptoms of decreased cardiac output, like dizziness, is crucial for early detection of pacemaker malfunction. Choices A, B, and C are less specific to pacemaker failure and are not commonly associated with this condition. Facial flushing, fever, and pounding headache are not typical signs of pacemaker failure and are not directly related to cardiac output, making them less relevant for teaching the client about pacemaker failure.