Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking NPH insulin daily every morning. The nurse instructs the client that the most likely time for a hypoglycemic reaction to occur is:

• A. 2-4 hours after administration
• B. 6-14 hours after administration
• C. 16-18 hours after administration
• D. 18-24 hours after administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 6-14 hours after administration. NPH insulin has an onset of action within 1-2 hours, a peak action at 6-14 hours, and a duration of action of 16-24 hours. The peak action period, which is when the risk of hypoglycemia is highest, falls between 6-14 hours after administration. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical action profile of NPH insulin.

2. A 67-year-old male client has been complaining of sleeping more, increased urination, anorexia, weakness, irritability, depression, and bone pain that interferes with his ability to go outdoors. Based on these assessment findings, Nurse Richard would suspect which of the following disorders?

• A. Diabetes mellitus
• B. Diabetes insipidus
• C. Hypoparathyroidism
• D. Hyperparathyroidism

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms described in the scenario, such as bone pain, increased urination, anorexia, and weakness, are indicative of hyperparathyroidism. In hyperparathyroidism, there is an excess of parathyroid hormone leading to increased calcium levels, which can result in bone pain and various systemic effects. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the symptoms presented by the client. Diabetes mellitus primarily presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and hyperglycemia. Diabetes insipidus manifests as polyuria and polydipsia with dilute urine. Hypoparathyroidism usually presents with hypocalcemia, causing symptoms like muscle cramps, tingling sensations, and seizures.

3. A client with DM is taking regular and NPH insulin every morning. The nurse should provide which instruction to the client?

• A. Take the regular insulin first, then the NPH insulin.
• B. Take the NPH insulin first, then the regular insulin.
• C. Mix the insulins in a separate syringe.
• D. Take the regular insulin first and immediately follow it with the NPH insulin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the client is to take the regular insulin first, then the NPH insulin. Regular insulin should be administered before NPH insulin to prevent contamination and maintain the potency of each insulin type. Choice B is incorrect because NPH insulin should not be taken before regular insulin. Mixing the insulins in a separate syringe, as suggested in choice C, is not recommended as it may alter the effectiveness of the insulins. Choice D is also incorrect as taking the regular insulin first and immediately following it with NPH insulin is not the recommended administration sequence.

4. The client with DM is being taught by the nurse about the importance of monitoring blood glucose levels. The nurse should instruct the client to:

• A. Check blood glucose only when feeling unwell.
• B. Check blood glucose before meals and at bedtime.
• C. Check blood glucose only after meals.
• D. Check blood glucose only in the morning.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check blood glucose before meals and at bedtime. Monitoring blood glucose levels before meals allows the client to adjust their insulin or oral antidiabetic medications based on their current levels. Checking at bedtime helps in ensuring blood glucose levels are at a safe range throughout the night. Option A is incorrect because blood glucose should be monitored regularly as part of diabetes management, not just when feeling unwell. Option C is incorrect because checking only after meals does not provide a complete picture of blood glucose control throughout the day. Option D is incorrect as checking only in the morning does not cover the full spectrum of blood glucose variations that can occur during the day.

5. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

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