Nursing Elites

1. What is the first action the nurse should take when treating a 6-year-old child who stepped on a rusty nail?

• A. Cleanse the foot with soap and water
• B. Instruct the parent about tetanus boosters
• C. Apply a sterile dressing and refer for a tetanus booster
• D. Elevate the foot and wrap in a compression bandage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action when a 6-year-old child steps on a rusty nail is to instruct the parent about tetanus boosters. This is important because stepping on a rusty nail increases the risk of tetanus infection. Choice A is incorrect as cleansing the foot comes after addressing the tetanus risk. Choice C is not the first action and should be done after addressing the immediate risk of tetanus. Choice D is not necessary as the priority is to prevent tetanus infection.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with increasing shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
• B. Reposition the client to improve breathing.
• C. Perform chest physiotherapy.
• D. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen via nasal cannula. Oxygen therapy is the priority intervention for a client with COPD experiencing increasing shortness of breath. It helps improve oxygenation and relieve respiratory distress. Choice B is not the priority as oxygenation needs to be addressed first. Choice C, chest physiotherapy, may be beneficial but is not the immediate priority in this situation. Choice D, encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe, is not the priority intervention when oxygenation is compromised.

3. The client provides three positive responses to the CAGE questionnaire. Which interpretation should the nurse provide?

• A. The CAGE is a tool for identifying substance abuse.
• B. Two positive responses suggest alcohol dependence.
• C. One positive response indicates potential alcohol issues.
• D. All responses must be positive for alcohol dependence.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The CAGE questionnaire is a widely used screening tool for alcohol dependence. Two or more positive responses suggest a higher likelihood of alcohol dependence. One positive response may indicate potential alcohol issues, but two or more significantly increase the likelihood of dependence. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate interpretation. Choice A is incorrect because the CAGE questionnaire specifically focuses on alcohol-related issues, not substance abuse in general. Choice C is incorrect as one positive response does not indicate addiction but rather raises a concern. Choice D is incorrect as not all responses need to be positive to suggest alcohol dependence.

4. An older client with SIRS has a temperature of 101.8°F, a heart rate of 110 beats per minute, and a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute. Which additional finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL
• B. Elevated WBC count
• C. Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg
• D. Oxygen saturation of 95%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 2.0 mg/dL indicates possible acute kidney injury, which can occur during severe systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS). Reporting this value promptly allows for interventions to prevent further renal damage. Elevated WBC count (choice B) is a common feature of SIRS and may not be as urgently indicative of immediate organ damage as high creatinine levels. A blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg (choice C) is relatively low but may be a typical finding in SIRS; however, renal function is critical in this context. Oxygen saturation of 95% (choice D) is within normal limits and is not as concerning as a high creatinine level in this scenario.

5. A client is admitted with an epidural hematoma after a skateboarding accident. How should the nurse differentiate the vascular source of intracranial bleeding?

• A. Monitor for clear fluid leakage from the nose.
• B. Assess for rapid onset of decreased level of consciousness.
• C. Check for bruising around the head and neck.
• D. Assess for changes in pupil size and reactivity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An epidural hematoma is characterized by a rapid onset of symptoms, including decreased level of consciousness, due to arterial bleeding, which differentiates it from other types of intracranial hemorrhage. Monitoring for clear fluid leakage from the nose (choice A) is more indicative of a basilar skull fracture and cerebrospinal fluid leak. Checking for bruising around the head and neck (choice C) is more suggestive of soft tissue injuries or facial fractures. Assessing for changes in pupil size and reactivity (choice D) is essential in evaluating traumatic brain injuries, but it is not specific to differentiating the vascular source of intracranial bleeding in an epidural hematoma.

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