what is the nurses first action when treating a 6 year old child who stepped on a rusty nail
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone

1. What is the first action the nurse should take when treating a 6-year-old child who stepped on a rusty nail?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action when a 6-year-old child steps on a rusty nail is to instruct the parent about tetanus boosters. This is important because stepping on a rusty nail increases the risk of tetanus infection. Choice A is incorrect as cleansing the foot comes after addressing the tetanus risk. Choice C is not the first action and should be done after addressing the immediate risk of tetanus. Choice D is not necessary as the priority is to prevent tetanus infection.

2. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What is the nurse's first action?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when a client receiving TPN is experiencing nausea and vomiting is to check the client's TPN bag for solution accuracy. This is crucial to ensure that the correct solution is being administered and to address any potential errors. Checking the blood glucose level or administering an antiemetic may be necessary interventions but addressing the TPN bag's accuracy should be the priority to prevent any complications related to incorrect TPN solution.

3. A client with cirrhosis develops ascites. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Restrict fluid intake to manage fluid overload. In a client with cirrhosis developing ascites, the priority intervention is to restrict fluid intake. This helps manage fluid overload, prevent further complications, such as respiratory distress or kidney impairment, and reduce the accumulation of ascitic fluid. Administering diuretics may be a part of the treatment plan, but the primary focus should be on fluid restriction. Positioning the client in Fowler’s position and measuring the abdominal girth are important interventions but not the priority when managing ascites in cirrhosis.

4. An older client with a long history of coronary artery disease, HTN, and HF arrives in the ED in respiratory distress. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide IV. Which therapeutic response to furosemide should the nurse expect in the client with acute HF?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced preload. Furosemide is a diuretic that reduces fluid overload in heart failure, which lowers the preload (the volume of blood in the ventricles before contraction). By reducing this volume, furosemide improves symptoms of heart failure. While furosemide may lead to increased urine output and lower blood pressure, these effects are secondary to the reduction in preload. Decreased heart rate is not a direct effect of furosemide in heart failure.

5. A female client taking prednisone reports feeling tired after stopping the corticosteroid abruptly. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to palpate the abdomen. When a client abruptly stops taking prednisone, there is a risk of adrenal insufficiency, which can present with symptoms like fatigue. Palpating the abdomen is crucial to assess for signs of adrenal crisis, such as abdominal pain, which can indicate severe adrenal insufficiency. Auscultating breath sounds (Choice A) and observing the skin for bruising (Choice D) are not the priority interventions in this situation. While measuring vital signs (Choice B) is important, palpating the abdomen takes precedence in this case to assess for potential adrenal insufficiency.

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