HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. A client is scheduled for a spiral CT scan with contrast to evaluate for pulmonary embolism. Which information in the client's history requires follow-up by the nurse?
- A. Is allergic to shellfish
- B. Has a history of smoking
- C. Takes metformin for type 2 diabetes mellitus
- D. Has hypertension controlled with medication
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An allergy to shellfish often indicates an allergy to iodine, which is used in contrast dyes for CT scans. This poses a significant risk of an allergic reaction during the procedure. The nurse must ensure appropriate precautions or alternative imaging are considered. Choices B, C, and D are not directly contraindicated for a CT scan with contrast. Smoking history, metformin use, and controlled hypertension do not typically impact the safety or feasibility of the procedure.
2. While assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility, which client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers?
- A. A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest
- B. An obese client who uses a wheelchair
- C. A client who had 3 episodes of incontinent diarrhea
- D. An 80-year-old ambulatory diabetic client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest. This client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to being malnourished and on bed rest, leading to decreased mobility and poor nutrition. This combination puts the client at significant risk for skin breakdown and pressure ulcers. Choice B is incorrect because although obesity is a risk factor for developing pressure ulcers, immobility and poor nutrition are higher risk factors. Choice C is incorrect as incontinence can contribute to skin breakdown but is not as high a risk factor as immobility and poor nutrition. Choice D is incorrect as an ambulatory client, even if diabetic, has better mobility than a bedridden client and is at lower risk for developing decubitus ulcers.
3. What is the most important assessment for a nurse to conduct on a child diagnosed with intussusception?
- A. Monitor for signs of infection.
- B. Measure abdominal girth and monitor for pain.
- C. Check for bowel movement and changes in stool.
- D. Assess hydration status and monitor urine output.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Check for bowel movement and changes in stool.' Intussusception can cause obstruction in the bowel, leading to symptoms like abdominal pain, vomiting, and 'currant jelly' stools. Monitoring for changes in bowel movement, especially the passage of 'currant jelly' stools, is crucial for early detection of worsening conditions. Choices A, B, and D are important assessments in pediatric care but are not as specific or crucial as checking for changes in bowel movement in a child diagnosed with intussusception.
4. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What lab value should the nurse review before administering the medication?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H)
- C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
- D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: International Normalized Ratio (INR). Before administering warfarin to a client with deep vein thrombosis, the nurse should review the INR to ensure the client is within the therapeutic range. INR is specifically monitored for patients on warfarin therapy to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not the primary lab value used to monitor warfarin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) is used to measure how long blood takes to clot. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H) assess for anemia and the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.
5. A male client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer prescribed anticoagulant.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Auscultate lung sounds.
- D. Prepare for chest physiotherapy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering an anticoagulant is the nurse's priority action in this situation. Given the client's history of DVT and the presentation of new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough, there is a concern for a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening complication of DVT. Administering an anticoagulant promptly is crucial to prevent further clot formation and to manage the existing clot, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism. While auscultating lung sounds and preparing for chest physiotherapy are important actions in respiratory assessment and management, the priority in this case is to address the potential complication of a pulmonary embolism by administering the anticoagulant. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating the immediate intervention of anticoagulant therapy.
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