Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving a blood transfusion and develops a fever. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer an antipyretic as prescribed.
• B. Stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Slow the rate of the transfusion.
• D. Continue the transfusion and reassess in 15 minutes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action when a client receiving a blood transfusion develops a fever is to stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider. This is crucial to prevent further reactions and ensure prompt intervention. Administering an antipyretic (Choice A) may mask symptoms and delay appropriate treatment. Slowing the rate of the transfusion (Choice C) might not address the underlying cause of the fever. Continuing the transfusion and reassessing in 15 minutes (Choice D) could worsen the client's condition if there is a severe reaction occurring.

2. The nurse has completed the diet teaching of a client who is being discharged following treatment of a leg wound. A high-protein diet is encouraged to promote wound healing. Which lunch choice by the client indicates that the teaching was effective?

• A. A tuna fish sandwich with chips and ice cream
• B. A vegetable salad with croutons and ranch dressing
• C. A grilled chicken breast with steamed vegetables
• D. A peanut butter and jelly sandwich with soda

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Grilled chicken is an excellent source of protein, which is important for wound healing. Choices A, B, and D are less ideal for wound healing. Choice A contains high-fat and high-sugar components like chips and ice cream, which may not support wound healing effectively. Choice B includes croutons and ranch dressing, which may not provide as much protein as needed for wound healing. Choice D with a peanut butter and jelly sandwich and soda lacks a balanced meal with adequate protein to promote wound healing.

3. While changing a client's chest tube dressing, the nurse notes a cracking sensation when gentle pressure is applied to the skin at the insertion site. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Apply a pressure dressing at the chest tube site.
• B. Administer an oral antihistamine per PRN order.
• C. Assess the client for allergies to topical cleaning agents.
• D. Measure the area of crackling and swelling.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Measuring the area of crackling and swelling is essential in monitoring the progression of subcutaneous emphysema, which can result from air leaking into the tissues around the chest tube insertion site. This technique helps evaluate the extent of the issue and guides further interventions. Applying a pressure dressing (choice A) might exacerbate the condition by trapping more air. Administering an oral antihistamine (choice B) is not indicated for subcutaneous emphysema. Assessing for allergies to topical cleaning agents (choice C) is not the priority in this situation compared to evaluating and managing the subcutaneous emphysema.

4. A client who recently underwent a tracheostomy is being prepared for discharge to home. Which instructions are most important for the nurse to include in the discharge plan?

• A. Teach signs of infection
• B. Teach tracheal suctioning techniques
• C. Educate on humidifying air
• D. Discuss the use of a speaking valve

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Teach tracheal suctioning techniques. Tracheal suctioning is crucial for maintaining a clear airway in clients with a tracheostomy. Without proper suctioning, secretions can accumulate and cause airway obstruction or respiratory infections. Educating the client on how to perform suctioning safely is a priority for discharge planning. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of tracheostomy care, but teaching tracheal suctioning techniques takes precedence due to its direct impact on airway patency and preventing complications.

5. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?

• A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
• B. To promote oxygenation by improving lung expansion
• C. To encourage use of accessory muscles for breathing
• D. To drain secretions and prevent aspiration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed in a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is essential to drain secretions and prevent aspiration. This position helps facilitate the removal of secretions from the airways, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the primary reason for elevating the head of the bed in ARDS is to assist with secretion drainage and prevent complications associated with aspiration.

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