Nursing Elites

1. A client is newly prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder. Which finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. A serum lithium level of 1.2 mEq/L.
• B. Fine hand tremors noted after starting the medication.
• C. A blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg.
• D. A serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Fine hand tremors noted after starting lithium are an early sign of lithium toxicity. It is crucial to report this finding to the healthcare provider promptly. Adjusting the dose or monitoring serum levels more closely may be necessary to prevent further toxicity. Choice A, a serum lithium level of 1.2 mEq/L, is within the therapeutic range (0.6-1.2 mEq/L) for treating bipolar disorder. Choice C, a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg, and Choice D, a serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L, are within normal limits and not directly related to lithium therapy or toxicity.

2. A client with heart failure is experiencing shortness of breath and swelling in the legs. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer prescribed diuretics
• B. Place the client in a supine position
• C. Restrict fluid intake immediately
• D. Increase the client's sodium intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer prescribed diuretics. Diuretics are prescribed to reduce fluid overload in clients with heart failure. By promoting urine output, diuretics help alleviate symptoms like shortness of breath and swelling. While placing the client in a supine position can help with breathing and fluid redistribution, administering diuretics takes precedence as it directly addresses fluid overload. Restricting fluid intake immediately may be necessary in some cases, but the immediate priority is to administer diuretics. Increasing the client's sodium intake would worsen fluid retention and is contraindicated in heart failure.

3. Prior to administering warfarin to a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, what lab result should the nurse review?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR).
• C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR). These lab values are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes these results. Ensuring the client's PT/INR levels are within the therapeutic range is essential to prevent clotting or excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation.

4. An adolescent who was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus Type 1 at the age of 9 is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of ketoacidosis?

• A. Had a cold and ear infection for the past two days
• B. Missed a dose of insulin
• C. Did not follow dietary restrictions
• D. Overexerted during exercise

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Infections, like a cold and ear infection, increase the body's metabolic needs and insulin resistance, making diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) more likely. While missing insulin doses or not following dietary restrictions can trigger DKA, an illness is the most common precipitating factor in pediatric Type 1 diabetes. Option B is less likely as missing insulin can lead to hyperglycemia but might not be the immediate cause of ketoacidosis. Option C can contribute to DKA over time, but the acute trigger is usually an illness. Option D, overexertion during exercise, is less likely to cause DKA compared to an infection.

5. A client receiving heparin therapy develops sudden chest pain and dyspnea. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer oxygen and elevate the head of the bed.
• B. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin as prescribed.
• C. Assess for signs of bleeding at the injection site.
• D. Administer a PRN dose of albuterol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen and elevate the head of the bed. These interventions help relieve dyspnea and chest pain, which can be indicative of a pulmonary embolism or other complications during heparin therapy. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice B) is not the initial priority in this situation as the client's symptoms are not suggestive of angina. Assessing for bleeding (Choice C) is important but not the first action needed to address chest pain and dyspnea. Administering albuterol (Choice D) is not indicated unless there are specific respiratory issues requiring it, which are not described in the scenario.

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