Nursing Elites

1. A client is newly prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder. Which finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. A serum lithium level of 1.2 mEq/L.
• B. Fine hand tremors noted after starting the medication.
• C. A blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg.
• D. A serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Fine hand tremors noted after starting lithium are an early sign of lithium toxicity. It is crucial to report this finding to the healthcare provider promptly. Adjusting the dose or monitoring serum levels more closely may be necessary to prevent further toxicity. Choice A, a serum lithium level of 1.2 mEq/L, is within the therapeutic range (0.6-1.2 mEq/L) for treating bipolar disorder. Choice C, a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg, and Choice D, a serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L, are within normal limits and not directly related to lithium therapy or toxicity.

2. A nurse is caring for a 73-year-old male client with Alzheimer's disease. Which action should the nurse take to enhance the client's nutritional intake?

• A. Encourage the client to eat large meals in one sitting.
• B. Offer the client frequent snacks of foods he enjoys.
• C. Provide the client with foods high in fiber to improve digestion.
• D. Discourage eating late at night to prevent weight gain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Offering frequent snacks of foods the client enjoys is the most appropriate action to enhance the nutritional intake of a client with Alzheimer's disease. This approach helps to ensure that the client receives an adequate amount of nutrients throughout the day, especially when larger meals might be challenging for individuals with Alzheimer's. Encouraging large meals in one sitting (Choice A) may overwhelm the client and lead to decreased food intake. While foods high in fiber (Choice C) are beneficial for digestion, the primary focus should be on providing foods the client enjoys to increase intake. Discouraging eating late at night (Choice D) is not directly related to enhancing nutritional intake in this scenario.

3. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
• D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.

4. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of septic shock. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is deteriorating?

• A. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
• B. Temperature of 99.5°F (37.5°C)
• C. Blood pressure of 88/52 mmHg
• D. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A blood pressure of 88/52 mmHg indicates hypotension, which is a sign of worsening septic shock. Hypotension can lead to organ failure and requires immediate intervention. Elevated heart rate (choice A), mild fever (choice B), and slightly increased respiratory rate (choice D) are common in septic shock and may not necessarily indicate a deteriorating condition as much as hypotension does.

5. The healthcare worker is wearing PPE while caring for a client. When exiting the room, which PPE should be removed first?

• A. Gloves
• B. Face shield
• C. Mask
• D. Gown

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Gloves should be removed first as they are most likely to be contaminated. This is followed by the gown, then face shield, and mask. Correct removal sequence helps prevent contamination. Removing gloves first reduces the risk of transferring pathogens from the gloves to other PPE or surfaces. Face shield and mask should be removed last as they protect mucous membranes from exposure to contaminants. Removing PPE in the correct sequence is crucial in preventing the spread of infections.

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