HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client is newly prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder. Which finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. A serum lithium level of 1.2 mEq/L.
- B. Fine hand tremors noted after starting the medication.
- C. A blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg.
- D. A serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Fine hand tremors noted after starting lithium are an early sign of lithium toxicity. It is crucial to report this finding to the healthcare provider promptly. Adjusting the dose or monitoring serum levels more closely may be necessary to prevent further toxicity. Choice A, a serum lithium level of 1.2 mEq/L, is within the therapeutic range (0.6-1.2 mEq/L) for treating bipolar disorder. Choice C, a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg, and Choice D, a serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L, are within normal limits and not directly related to lithium therapy or toxicity.
2. Which intervention should be included in the long-term plan of care for a client with COPD?
- A. Administer high-flow oxygen during sleep.
- B. Reduce risk factors for infection.
- C. Limit fluid intake to reduce secretions.
- D. Use diaphragmatic breathing to achieve better exhalation.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Use diaphragmatic breathing to achieve better exhalation.' Diaphragmatic breathing is an essential intervention for clients with COPD as it helps improve exhalation and lung function, ultimately reducing symptoms over the long term. Option A is incorrect because high-flow oxygen during sleep is more relevant for clients with conditions like sleep apnea rather than COPD. Option B, 'Reduce risk factors for infection,' is important but not as specific to the long-term management of COPD as diaphragmatic breathing. Option C, 'Limit fluid intake to reduce secretions,' is not a recommended intervention for clients with COPD, as adequate hydration is crucial for maintaining respiratory health.
3. A client receiving heparin therapy experiences a drop in platelet count. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Continue to monitor the platelet count.
- B. Discontinue the heparin infusion.
- C. Administer platelet transfusion.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Notify the healthcare provider immediately. A drop in platelet count during heparin therapy may indicate heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), a serious condition that increases the risk of clot formation. Immediate discontinuation of heparin is necessary to prevent further complications. Administering platelet transfusion without addressing the underlying cause can be harmful. Continuing to monitor the platelet count without taking immediate action can lead to delayed intervention. Notifying the healthcare provider promptly allows for assessment and initiation of alternative anticoagulation therapy to manage the client's condition effectively.
4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of schizophrenia. The client refuses to take medication and states 'I don't think I need those medications. They make me too sleepy and drowsy. I insist that you explain their use and side effects.' The nurse should understand that
- A. A referral is needed to the psychiatrist who is to provide the client with answers
- B. The client has a right to know about the prescribed medications
- C. Such education is an independent decision of the individual nurse whether or not to teach clients about their medications
- D. Clients with schizophrenia are at a higher risk of psychosocial complications when they know about their medication side effects
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client has a legal right to be informed about their treatment, including medication uses and side effects, as part of informed consent. This helps ensure that the client can make an informed decision about their care. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse can provide the client with information about their medications. Choice C is incorrect as it is not an independent decision of the nurse but a professional responsibility to educate clients. Choice D is incorrect as knowledge about medication side effects can actually empower clients to manage their condition effectively.
5. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?
- A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
- B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
- C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
- D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.
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