a client with a peptic ulcer is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor what is the expected outcome of this medication
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

1. What is the expected outcome of prescribing a proton pump inhibitor to a client with a peptic ulcer?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduce gastric acid secretion. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) work by reducing gastric acid secretion, which helps prevent further irritation of the gastric mucosa and allows ulcers to heal. While promoting healing of the gastric mucosa (Choice A) is an indirect outcome of reducing gastric acid secretion, the primary mechanism of PPIs is to lower acid levels. Choice B, neutralizing the effects of stomach acid, is typically associated with antacids, not PPIs. Inhibiting the growth of Helicobacter pylori (Choice C) is usually achieved with antibiotics, not PPIs.

2. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), who usually works on a surgical unit, is assigned to float to a pediatric unit. Which question by the charge nurse would be most appropriate when making delegation decisions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate question by the charge nurse would be to ask the UAP if they have reviewed the list of expected skills needed on the pediatric unit. This ensures that the UAP is aware of the specific skills required for safe and appropriate care in that particular unit. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the need for the UAP to review the expected skills, which is crucial for delegation decisions during floating assignments.

3. What breakfast selection indicates appropriate dietary management for osteoporosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A bagel with jelly and skim milk is a calcium-rich and low-fat option that aligns with the dietary recommendations for managing osteoporosis. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones, so it is essential to consume an adequate amount of calcium while avoiding excess fat intake. Choices A, C, and D are not ideal for osteoporosis management as they either lack sufficient calcium, contain high fat content, or both.

4. During an initial assessment, a healthcare provider notes that a client has elevated blood pressure. Which of the following findings is considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated blood pressure is a significant risk factor for coronary artery disease because it increases the strain on the arteries, leading to potential damage and a higher risk of developing coronary artery disease. Elevated HDL cholesterol (Choice A) is actually considered beneficial as it helps reduce the risk of heart disease. Low LDL cholesterol (Choice B) is also beneficial as high levels of LDL are associated with an increased risk of coronary artery disease. Low triglyceride levels (Choice D) are not typically considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease.

5. Which self-care measure is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care of a client recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Blood glucose monitoring is crucial for managing diabetes effectively. By monitoring blood sugar levels, individuals can understand how their lifestyle choices, medications, and diet affect their glucose levels. This information helps in making necessary adjustments to control blood sugar levels and prevent complications. While maintaining a low-sugar diet, foot care, and daily exercise are all important aspects of managing diabetes, blood glucose monitoring takes precedence as it provides real-time data for informed decision-making.

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