the nurse is administering an intermittent infusion of an antibiotic to a client whose intravenous iv access is an antecubital saline lock after the n
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam

1. The healthcare professional is administering an intermittent infusion of an antibiotic to a client with an antecubital saline lock. After opening the roller clamp on the IV tubing, the alarm on the infusion pump indicates an obstruction. What action should be taken first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Repositioning the client's arm is the initial action to take when encountering an obstruction with an antecubital saline lock. Repositioning may correct any bending at the elbow that could be causing the obstruction, allowing for smoother infusion flow. Checking for a blood return, removing the IV site dressing, or flushing the lock with saline would be subsequent actions once the obstruction is addressed. Checking for a blood return is done to confirm proper placement, removing the IV site dressing is necessary for site assessment, and flushing the lock with saline helps maintain patency but should not be the first action when an obstruction is detected.

2. A client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline is instructed to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Theophylline should be administered on a regular around-the-clock schedule to provide the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the potential for adverse effects. The correct dosing schedule of 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight ensures that the client receives consistent dosing throughout the day. Other options do not provide the necessary around-the-clock coverage. It's important to note that food may affect the absorption of the medication, which is why the dosing schedule should not be tied to meal times.

3. The healthcare provider plans to administer diazepam, 4 mg IV push, to a client with severe anxiety. How many milliliters should the healthcare provider administer? (Round to the nearest tenth.)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula (1 mL × 4 mg) / 5 mg = 0.8 mL. The healthcare provider should administer 0.8 mL of diazepam for a dosage of 4 mg IV push. Choice A is incorrect because it results from an incorrect calculation. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided dosage.

4. While changing a client’s post-operative dressing, the nurse observes a red and swollen wound with a moderate amount of yellow and green drainage and a foul odor. Given a positive MRSA result, what is the most important action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Initiating contact precautions is crucial in this situation to prevent the spread of MRSA infection. MRSA is a highly contagious bacterium that can spread through direct contact with an infected wound or by touching contaminated surfaces. By implementing contact precautions, the nurse can help contain the infection and protect other patients, healthcare workers, and visitors from being exposed to MRSA.

5. When assessing a client with wrist restraints, the nurse observes that the fingers on the right hand are blue. What action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing action is to restore circulation by loosening the restraint (A) because blue fingers (cyanosis) indicate decreased circulation. Comparing hand color bilaterally (C) and palpating the right radial pulse (D) are important assessments to gather more information, but they do not have the priority of addressing the decreased circulation by loosening the restraint. Applying a pulse oximeter (B) is not indicated in this scenario as it measures the saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen, which is not relevant when cyanosis is related to mechanical compression from the restraints.

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