Nursing Elites

1. A client is brought to the emergency department by a neighbor. The client is lethargic and has a fruity odor on the breath. The client’s arterial blood gas (ABG) results are pH 7.25, PCO2 34 mm Hg, PO2 86 mm Hg, HCO3 14 mEq/L. Which of the following acid-base disturbances does the nurse recognize in these results?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Metabolic acidosis.' Metabolic acidosis is characterized by a low pH (<7.35) and a low bicarbonate level (HCO3 <22 mEq/L). In this case, the client's ABG results show a pH of 7.25 and an HCO3 level of 14 mEq/L, indicating metabolic acidosis. The PCO2 of 34 mm Hg is normal, ruling out respiratory acidosis or alkalosis. The PO2 of 86 mm Hg is also within the normal range and is not indicative of a respiratory problem. Therefore, the client is experiencing metabolic acidosis based on the ABG results provided.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer amoxicillin (Amoxil) to a patient and learns that the patient previously experienced a rash when taking penicillin. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Administer the amoxicillin and have epinephrine available.
• B. Ask the provider to order an antihistamine.
• C. Contact the provider to discuss using a different antibiotic.
• D. Request an order for a beta-lactamase-resistant drug.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient has a history of rash from penicillin, it indicates a potential allergic reaction to penicillin and other related drugs, such as amoxicillin. It is crucial to avoid administering penicillins to such patients unless there is no alternative. The nurse's best action in this situation is to contact the provider to discuss using a different antibiotic from a different class. This approach helps prevent potential severe allergic reactions. While epinephrine and antihistamines are used to manage allergic reactions, administering amoxicillin despite the known allergy is not advisable and could lead to serious consequences. Requesting a beta-lactamase-resistant drug does not address the issue of potential allergic reactions in this scenario.

3. A client is hospitalized with heart failure (HF). Which intervention should the nurse implement to improve ventilation and reduce venous return?

• A. Perform passive range of motion exercises
• B. Place the client in high Fowler's position
• C. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
• D. Increase the client's activity level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with heart failure, placing them in high Fowler's position is beneficial as it helps reduce venous return and improve ventilation. This position aids in decreasing the workload on the heart by promoting better lung expansion and oxygenation. Passive range of motion exercises (Choice A) are not directly related to improving ventilation or reducing venous return. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice C) may help with oxygenation but does not directly address reducing venous return. Increasing the client's activity level (Choice D) may worsen heart failure symptoms by increasing the workload on the heart.

4. The nurse assumes care for a patient who is currently receiving a dose of intravenous vancomycin (Vancocin) infusing at 20 mg/min. The nurse notes red blotches on the patient’s face, neck, and chest and assesses a blood pressure of 80/55 mm Hg. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Request an order for IV epinephrine to treat anaphylactic shock.
• B. Slow the infusion to 10 mg/min and observe the patient closely.
• C. Stop the infusion and obtain an order for a BUN and serum creatinine.
• D. Suspect Stevens-Johnson syndrome and notify the provider immediately.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When vancomycin is infused too rapidly, “red man” syndrome may occur; the rate should be 10 mg/min to prevent this. This is a toxic reaction, not an allergic one, so epinephrine is not indicated. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is characterized by a rash and fever. Red man syndrome is not related to renal function.

5. A client has a urine specific gravity of 1.040. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain a urine culture and sensitivity.
• B. Place the client on restricted fluids.
• C. Assess the client’s creatinine level.
• D. Increase the client’s fluid intake.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.040 is higher than the normal range (1.005 to 1.030) and can indicate dehydration, decreased kidney blood flow, or the presence of antidiuretic hormone. In this situation, the priority action should be to increase the client's fluid intake to address the high specific gravity. Obtaining a urine culture, placing the client on restricted fluids, or assessing the creatinine level would not directly address the underlying issue of high urine specific gravity caused by dehydration or other factors.

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