Nursing Elites

1. A client is brought to the emergency department by a neighbor. The client is lethargic and has a fruity odor on the breath. The client’s arterial blood gas (ABG) results are pH 7.25, PCO2 34 mm Hg, PO2 86 mm Hg, HCO3 14 mEq/L. Which of the following acid-base disturbances does the nurse recognize in these results?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Metabolic acidosis.' Metabolic acidosis is characterized by a low pH (<7.35) and a low bicarbonate level (HCO3 <22 mEq/L). In this case, the client's ABG results show a pH of 7.25 and an HCO3 level of 14 mEq/L, indicating metabolic acidosis. The PCO2 of 34 mm Hg is normal, ruling out respiratory acidosis or alkalosis. The PO2 of 86 mm Hg is also within the normal range and is not indicative of a respiratory problem. Therefore, the client is experiencing metabolic acidosis based on the ABG results provided.

2. A nursing student is suctioning a client through a tracheostomy tube while a nurse observes. Which action by the student would prompt the nurse to intervene and demonstrate the correct procedure? Select all that apply.

• A. Setting the suction pressure to 60 mm Hg
• B. Applying suction throughout the procedure
• C. Assessing breath sounds before suctioning
• D. Placing the client in a supine position before the procedure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct suction pressure for an adult client with a tracheostomy tube is typically between 80 to 120 mm Hg. Suction should be applied intermittently during catheter withdrawal to avoid damaging the airway. Assessing breath sounds before suctioning is important to ensure the procedure is necessary. Placing the client in a supine position before suctioning can compromise their airway; instead, the head of the bed should be elevated to facilitate proper drainage and reduce the risk of aspiration. Therefore, setting the suction pressure to 60 mm Hg is incorrect and would prompt the nurse to intervene and correct the procedure.

3. A client has been scheduled for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). For which of the following conditions, a contraindication to MRI, does the nurse check the client’s medical history?

• A. Pancreatitis
• B. Pacemaker insertion
• C. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
• D. Chronic airway limitation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pacemaker insertion. Patients with metal devices or implants are contraindicated for MRI. These include pacemakers, orthopedic hardware, artificial heart valves, aneurysm clips, and intrauterine devices. These metal objects can be affected by the strong magnetic field of the MRI, leading to serious risks for the patient. Pancreatitis (choice A), Type 1 diabetes mellitus (choice C), and chronic airway limitation (choice D) are not contraindications to MRI based on the presence of metal objects. Therefore, the nurse should be particularly concerned about pacemaker insertion when reviewing the client's medical history prior to an MRI.

4. A client is to have a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy to remove a large, invasive pituitary tumor. The nurse should instruct the client that the surgery will be performed through an incision in the:

• A. Back of the mouth.
• B. Nose.
• C. Sinus channel below the right eye.
• D. Upper gingival mucosa in the space between the upper gums and lip.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Upper gingival mucosa in the space between the upper gums and lip. A transsphenoidal hypophysectomy involves accessing the pituitary gland through an incision in the upper gingival mucosa, providing direct access to the pituitary gland without external scars. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the surgery is not performed through the back of the mouth, the nose, or the sinus channel below the right eye. It is crucial for the client to understand the specific location of the incision to ensure accurate preoperative education and expectations.

5. What is the primary purpose of administering IV fluids to a patient in septic shock?

• A. To reduce blood pressure.
• B. To increase cardiac output.
• C. To stabilize blood glucose levels.
• D. To maintain adequate tissue perfusion.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary purpose of administering IV fluids to a patient in septic shock is to maintain adequate tissue perfusion. In septic shock, there is a significant drop in blood pressure and systemic vascular resistance leading to poor tissue perfusion. IV fluids help to restore intravascular volume, improve perfusion to vital organs, and prevent organ failure. Choice A ('To reduce blood pressure') is incorrect because IV fluids in septic shock aim to restore tissue perfusion rather than lower blood pressure. Choice B ('To increase cardiac output') is incorrect as the primary goal is to improve tissue perfusion, not specifically increase cardiac output. Choice C ('To stabilize blood glucose levels') is unrelated to the primary purpose of administering IV fluids in septic shock, which is to address the compromised tissue perfusion.

Similar Questions