HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. A client is admitted with a possible myocardial infarction. Which laboratory test result is most indicative of a myocardial infarction?
- A. Serum creatine kinase (CK)
- B. Serum troponin
- C. Serum myoglobin
- D. C-reactive protein (CRP)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Serum troponin is the most specific and sensitive indicator of myocardial infarction. Troponin levels rise within 3-4 hours after myocardial damage, peak at 10-24 hours, and remain elevated for up to 10-14 days. Creatine kinase (CK) and myoglobin can also be elevated in myocardial infarction, but troponin is more specific to cardiac muscle damage. C-reactive protein (CRP) is a marker of inflammation and is not specific for myocardial infarction.
2. A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which clinical finding is most concerning to the nurse?
- A. Serum glucose of 500 mg/dL
- B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
- C. Serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg
- D. Serum pH of 7.30
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg is the most concerning finding in a client with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS) as it indicates severe dehydration and hypertonicity. This high serum osmolarity level can lead to neurological complications and requires immediate intervention to prevent further deterioration. Serum glucose levels, blood pressure, and serum pH are important parameters to monitor in HHS, but a significantly elevated serum osmolarity poses a higher risk of complications and warrants urgent attention. High serum glucose levels, like 500 mg/dL, are expected in HHS but do not directly indicate the severity of dehydration. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg is within normal limits and may not be directly related to the acute complications of HHS. A serum pH of 7.30 suggests acidosis, which is important to address but may not be as immediately concerning as severe dehydration indicated by high serum osmolarity.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Hemoglobin
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Serum potassium
- D. Serum creatinine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. When a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen), monitoring serum potassium levels closely is crucial. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, which can lead to an increase in potassium levels. Hyperkalemia is a potential risk in these clients. Monitoring hemoglobin levels (choice A) is important in assessing the effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy, but it is not the laboratory value that poses an immediate risk related to the medication. White blood cell count (choice B) and serum creatinine (choice D) are not directly affected by epoetin alfa therapy and are not the priority laboratory values to monitor in this case.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy who has thick, tenacious secretions. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Crepitus around the tracheostomy site
- B. Dry and cracked tracheostomy site
- C. Mucous plugging of the tracheostomy tube
- D. Yellowing of the skin around the tracheostomy site
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Mucous plugging of the tracheostomy tube is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with a tracheostomy. It can lead to airway obstruction, which requires immediate intervention to ensure the client's airway remains patent. Crepitus around the tracheostomy site may indicate subcutaneous emphysema but is not as urgent as a blocked airway. A dry and cracked tracheostomy site may indicate poor skin integrity but does not pose an immediate threat to the client's airway. Yellowing of the skin around the tracheostomy site could suggest a localized infection, but it is not as critical as a potential airway obstruction caused by mucous plugging.
5. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
- B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
- C. Begin external chest compressions.
- D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of nausea and a significant drop in blood pressure suggest a potential right ventricular infarction. The appropriate intervention for this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. This fluid resuscitation helps improve cardiac output by increasing preload, which can be beneficial in right ventricular infarction. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin may further lower blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated in this case as the client has a pulse. Providing an antiemetic medication does not address the underlying issue of hypotension and potential right ventricular involvement.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access