Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with a possible myocardial infarction. Which laboratory test result is most indicative of a myocardial infarction?

• A. Serum creatine kinase (CK)
• B. Serum troponin
• C. Serum myoglobin
• D. C-reactive protein (CRP)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Serum troponin is the most specific and sensitive indicator of myocardial infarction. Troponin levels rise within 3-4 hours after myocardial damage, peak at 10-24 hours, and remain elevated for up to 10-14 days. Creatine kinase (CK) and myoglobin can also be elevated in myocardial infarction, but troponin is more specific to cardiac muscle damage. C-reactive protein (CRP) is a marker of inflammation and is not specific for myocardial infarction.

2. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
• C. Begin external chest compressions.
• D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of nausea and a significant drop in blood pressure suggest a potential right ventricular infarction. The appropriate intervention for this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. This fluid resuscitation helps improve cardiac output by increasing preload, which can be beneficial in right ventricular infarction. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin may further lower blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated in this case as the client has a pulse. Providing an antiemetic medication does not address the underlying issue of hypotension and potential right ventricular involvement.

3. A male client with cancer who has lost 10 pounds during the last months tells the nurse that beef, chicken, and eggs, which used to be his favorite foods, now taste 'bitter'. He complains that he simply has no appetite. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Suggest the use of alternative sources of protein such as dairy products and nuts.
• B. Encourage the client to eat smaller, more frequent meals.
• C. Offer nutritional supplements between meals.
• D. Discuss the possibility of appetite stimulants with the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering alternative protein sources like dairy products and nuts can help maintain nutrition when the client finds certain foods unpalatable, as in this case where beef, chicken, and eggs taste 'bitter'. Encouraging smaller, more frequent meals may not address the issue of unpalatable foods. Offering nutritional supplements between meals may not specifically address the problem of protein intake. Discussing appetite stimulants should be considered after exploring less invasive options first.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Use of accessory muscles is the most concerning finding in a client with COPD experiencing an exacerbation. This indicates increased work of breathing and can be a sign of respiratory failure, requiring immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation of 90% is low but not as concerning as the increased work of breathing. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute can be within normal limits. Inspiratory crackles may be present in COPD due to airway inflammation but are not as concerning as the use of accessory muscles.

5. A male client is admitted with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting for the last several hours despite the use of antiemetics. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 500 ml bolus
• B. Administer an antiemetic intravenously
• C. Insert a nasogastric tube
• D. Prepare the client for surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a male client with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting is to infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 500 ml bolus. This intervention is crucial to address the risk of hypovolemia due to excessive vomiting. Administering intravenous fluids will help prevent dehydration, maintain blood pressure, and stabilize the client's condition. Choice B, administering an antiemetic intravenously, may not be effective as the client has already been unresponsive to antiemetics orally. Choice C, inserting a nasogastric tube, may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Choice D, preparing the client for surgery, should only be considered after stabilizing the client's fluid and electrolyte balance.

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