Nursing Elites

1. A client is suspected of being poisoned and presents with symmetric, descending flaccid paralysis, blurred vision, double vision, and dry mouth. The nurse should consider these findings consistent with which potential bioterrorism agent?

• A. ricin
• B. botulism toxin
• C. sulfur mustard
• D. yersinia pestis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: botulism toxin. The symptoms described, including symmetric, descending flaccid paralysis, blurred vision, double vision, and dry mouth, are classic manifestations of botulism, which is caused by a toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum. This toxin affects the nervous system, leading to muscle weakness and paralysis. Choice A, ricin, typically presents with gastrointestinal symptoms and organ failure. Choice C, sulfur mustard, causes blistering skin and respiratory issues. Choice D, yersinia pestis, is associated with the plague and presents with fever, chills, weakness, and swollen lymph nodes.

2. The nurse is documenting the medical history of a young adult who was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The client smokes 2 packs of cigarettes a day, and his father died of a heart attack at the age of 45. Which annual screening is most important for the nurse to include?

• A. peripheral neuropathy
• B. renal insufficiency
• C. retinopathy
• D. hyperlipidemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important annual screening for the nurse to include is hyperlipidemia. Given the client's smoking history, family history of premature heart disease, and the increased risk of cardiovascular complications associated with diabetes, screening for hyperlipidemia is crucial. This screening is essential in assessing the client's risk of developing cardiovascular disease, which is a significant concern in this case. Peripheral neuropathy (choice A) is a common long-term complication of diabetes but may not be the most immediate concern in this scenario. Renal insufficiency (choice B) is also a complication of diabetes, but given the client's high cardiovascular risk, hyperlipidemia screening takes priority. Retinopathy (choice C) is an important complication of diabetes affecting the eyes, but in this case, focusing on cardiovascular risk assessment through hyperlipidemia screening is more critical.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum albumin of 3.5 g/dL.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
• C. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL.
• D. Serum ammonia level of 180 mcg/dL.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, the serum ammonia level of 180 mcg/dL. An elevated serum ammonia level indicates hepatic dysfunction and can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Options A, B, and C are within normal ranges or slightly abnormal values for clients with cirrhosis and do not pose an immediate threat. Serum albumin levels may indicate malnutrition, prothrombin time may reflect liver synthetic function, and hemoglobin levels can be affected by various factors but do not require immediate intervention in this scenario.

4. The nurse obtains a pulse rate of 89 beats/min for an infant before administering digoxin (Lanoxin). What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication.
• B. Hold the medication and contact the healthcare provider.
• C. Double the dose.
• D. Increase fluid intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the medication and contact the healthcare provider. Bradycardia (pulse rate less than 100 beats/minute) is an early sign of digoxin toxicity. It is essential to withhold digoxin and notify the healthcare provider to prevent potential adverse effects. Administering the medication (Choice A) could exacerbate the toxicity. Doubling the dose (Choice C) is inappropriate and dangerous. Increasing fluid intake (Choice D) is not indicated in this situation and does not address the issue of digoxin toxicity.

5. When planning a community health fair to promote mental health awareness, which activity should be included to best engage participants?

• A. free mental health screenings
• B. lectures on mental health topics
• C. distribution of mental health resources
• D. interactive workshops on stress management

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best activity to engage participants in a community health fair promoting mental health awareness is to offer free mental health screenings. This activity not only attracts participants but also provides them with immediate, valuable information about their mental health status. Free screenings can help raise awareness, encourage early detection of mental health issues, and prompt participants to seek further assistance if needed. Lectures, while informative, may not be as engaging or impactful as the personalized feedback individuals receive from screenings. Distributing resources is helpful, but active engagement through screenings is more effective in promoting awareness and encouraging action. Interactive workshops on stress management are beneficial but might not provide the same level of individualized insight into mental health as screenings do.

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