HESI RN
HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A healthcare professional is reading the chest x-ray report of a client who has just been intubated. The report states that the tip of the endotracheal tube lies 1 cm above the carina. The healthcare professional interprets that the tube is positioned above:
- A. The first tracheal cartilaginous ring
- B. The point where the larynx connects to the trachea
- C. The bifurcation of the right and left main stem bronchi
- D. The area connecting the oropharynx to the laryngopharynx
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The carina is a cartilaginous ridge that separates the openings of the two main stem (right and left) bronchi. If an endotracheal tube is inserted past the carina, the tube will enter the right main stem bronchus due to the natural curvature of the airway. This positioning is dangerous as only the right lung will be ventilated. It can be identified as only the right lung will have breath sounds and rise and fall with ventilation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not relate to the specific anatomical landmark mentioned in the scenario.
2. The LPN/LVN caring for a laboring client encourages her to void at least q2h, and records each time the client empties her bladder. What is the primary reason for implementing this nursing intervention?
- A. Emptying the bladder during delivery is difficult because of the position of the presenting fetal part.
- B. An over-distended bladder could be traumatized during labor as well as prolong the progress of labor.
- C. Urine specimens for glucose and protein must be obtained at certain intervals throughout labor.
- D. Frequent voiding minimizes the need for catheterization, which increases the chance of bladder infection.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary reason for encouraging the laboring client to void regularly is to prevent an over-distended bladder, which could impede the descent of the fetus, prolong labor, and be at risk for trauma during delivery. Choice A is incorrect because the difficulty in emptying the bladder during delivery is not the main reason for this nursing intervention. Choice C is incorrect as it pertains to obtaining urine specimens for glucose and protein, not the primary reason for encouraging voiding. Choice D is incorrect because although frequent voiding can indeed minimize the need for catheterization, the primary reason is to prevent an over-distended bladder and potential complications.
3. A client who is taking clonidine (Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness. Which additional assessment should the nurse make?
- A. How long has the client been taking the medication?
- B. Assess the client's dietary habits.
- C. Check for signs of infection.
- D. Evaluate the client's sleep pattern.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. When a client reports drowsiness while taking clonidine, the nurse should assess how long the client has been taking the medication. Drowsiness is a common side effect that can occur in the early weeks of treatment with clonidine. By understanding the duration of medication use, the nurse can determine if the drowsiness is a temporary effect that may decrease over time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because assessing the client's dietary habits, checking for signs of infection, or evaluating the client's sleep pattern would not directly address the drowsiness associated with clonidine use.
4. When assessing a male client, the nurse finds that he is fatigued and experiencing muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Based on these findings, the nurse plans to check the client’s laboratory values to validate the existence of which condition?
- A. Hyperphosphatemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hypermagnesemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The symptoms of fatigue, muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias are classic manifestations of hypokalemia. Potassium plays a vital role in muscle function and cardiac conduction, so a deficiency can lead to these symptoms. Checking the client’s laboratory values for potassium levels will help confirm the presence of hypokalemia.
5. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?
- A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
- B. To promote oxygenation by improving lung expansion
- C. To encourage use of accessory muscles for breathing
- D. To drain secretions and prevent aspiration
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed in a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is essential to drain secretions and prevent aspiration. This position helps facilitate the removal of secretions from the airways, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the primary reason for elevating the head of the bed in ARDS is to assist with secretion drainage and prevent complications associated with aspiration.