Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reading the chest x-ray report of a client who has just been intubated. The report states that the tip of the endotracheal tube lies 1 cm above the carina. The healthcare professional interprets that the tube is positioned above:

• A. The first tracheal cartilaginous ring
• B. The point where the larynx connects to the trachea
• C. The bifurcation of the right and left main stem bronchi
• D. The area connecting the oropharynx to the laryngopharynx

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The carina is a cartilaginous ridge that separates the openings of the two main stem (right and left) bronchi. If an endotracheal tube is inserted past the carina, the tube will enter the right main stem bronchus due to the natural curvature of the airway. This positioning is dangerous as only the right lung will be ventilated. It can be identified as only the right lung will have breath sounds and rise and fall with ventilation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not relate to the specific anatomical landmark mentioned in the scenario.

2. A nurse obtains a sterile urine specimen from a client’s Foley catheter. After applying a clamp to the drainage tubing distal to the injection port, which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Clamp another section of the tube to create a fixed sample section for retrieval.
• B. Insert a syringe into the injection port and aspirate the quantity of urine required.
• C. Clean the injection port cap of the drainage tubing with a povidone-iodine solution.
• D. Withdraw 10 mL of urine and discard it; then withdraw a fresh sample of urine.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct next action for the nurse to take after applying a clamp to the drainage tubing distal to the injection port is to clean the injection port cap of the catheter drainage tubing with an appropriate antiseptic like povidone-iodine solution or alcohol. This step is crucial to prevent surface contamination before taking the urine sample. Clamping another section of the tube to create a fixed sample section or withdrawing and discarding urine are unnecessary and could lead to potential contamination. Inserting a syringe into the injection port and aspirating the required amount of urine directly from the catheter is the correct method for obtaining the urine sample, but cleaning the injection port cap should precede this step to ensure sterility.

3. A client with nephrotic syndrome is being assessed by a nurse. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Proteinuria
• B. Hypoalbuminemia
• C. Lipiduria
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by glomerular damage, leading to proteinuria (excessive protein in the urine), hypoalbuminemia (low levels of albumin in the blood), and lipiduria (lipids in the urine). These manifestations are key indicators of nephrotic syndrome. Edema, often severe, is also common due to decreased plasma oncotic pressure from hypoalbuminemia. The correct answer is 'All of the above' because all three manifestations are associated with nephrotic syndrome. Dehydration is not a typical finding in nephrotic syndrome as it is more commonly associated with fluid retention and edema. Dysuria is a symptom of cystitis, not nephrotic syndrome. CVA tenderness is more indicative of inflammatory changes in the kidney rather than nephrotic syndrome.

4. The healthcare professional is preparing to give a dose of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) and learns that the patient takes warfarin (Coumadin). The healthcare professional will request an order for

• A. a decreased dose of TMP-SMX.
• B. a different antibiotic.
• C. an increased dose of warfarin.
• D. coagulation studies.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sulfonamides, like trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), can potentiate the anticoagulant effects of warfarin (Coumadin). To monitor the patient's response and prevent adverse effects, the healthcare professional should request coagulation studies, such as International Normalized Ratio (INR) levels. Choosing a decreased dose of TMP-SMX would not address the potential drug interaction between TMP-SMX and warfarin. Opting for a different antibiotic is not necessary if the interaction can be managed by monitoring. Increasing the dose of warfarin without monitoring could lead to excessive anticoagulation and adverse events, so it's not the appropriate action in this scenario.

5. A client is vomiting. For which acid-base imbalance does the nurse assess the client?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client who is vomiting, the loss of gastric fluid containing hydrochloric acid can lead to metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic alkalosis is caused by the loss of acids such as hydrochloric acid from the body. Therefore, in this scenario, the nurse should assess the client for metabolic alkalosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because vomiting does not typically lead to metabolic acidosis, respiratory acidosis, or respiratory alkalosis.

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