Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reading the chest x-ray report of a client who has just been intubated. The report states that the tip of the endotracheal tube lies 1 cm above the carina. The healthcare professional interprets that the tube is positioned above:

• A. The first tracheal cartilaginous ring
• B. The point where the larynx connects to the trachea
• C. The bifurcation of the right and left main stem bronchi
• D. The area connecting the oropharynx to the laryngopharynx

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The carina is a cartilaginous ridge that separates the openings of the two main stem (right and left) bronchi. If an endotracheal tube is inserted past the carina, the tube will enter the right main stem bronchus due to the natural curvature of the airway. This positioning is dangerous as only the right lung will be ventilated. It can be identified as only the right lung will have breath sounds and rise and fall with ventilation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not relate to the specific anatomical landmark mentioned in the scenario.

2. A client who underwent preadmission testing 1 week before surgery had blood drawn for several serum laboratory studies. Which abnormal laboratory results should the nurse report to the surgeon’s office? Select all that apply.

• A. Hematocrit 30%
• B. Sodium 141 mEq/L
• C. Hemoglobin 8.9 g/dL
• D. Platelets 210,000 cells/mm3

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hemoglobin level of 8.9 g/dL is below the normal range, indicating anemia. Anemia can affect the body's ability to carry oxygen, impacting surgical outcomes. Hematocrit level is an indirect measure of red blood cells, which also reveals anemia when low. Sodium level of 141 mEq/L and platelet count of 210,000 cells/mm3 are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting. Abnormal sodium levels can lead to various issues, but in this scenario, it is not a concern for surgical readiness. Platelet count is vital for blood clotting, and a count of 210,000 cells/mm3 is considered normal, so it does not need urgent attention.

3. The nurse assesses a client with advanced cirrhosis of the liver for signs of hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding would the nurse consider an indication of progressive hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. An increase in abdominal girth.
• B. Hypertension and a bounding pulse.
• C. Decreased bowel sounds.
• D. Difficulty in handwriting.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Difficulty in handwriting is a common early sign of hepatic encephalopathy. Changes in handwriting can indicate progression or reversal of hepatic encephalopathy leading to coma. Choice (A) is a sign of ascites, not hepatic encephalopathy. Hypertension and a bounding pulse (Choice B) are not typically associated with hepatic encephalopathy. Decreased bowel sounds (Choice C) do not directly indicate an increase in serum ammonia level, which is the primary cause of hepatic encephalopathy.

4. What is the most common side effect of diuretics such as furosemide (Lasix)?

• A. Hypokalemia.
• B. Hyperkalemia.
• C. Hypernatremia.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypokalemia.' Diuretics like furosemide increase the excretion of potassium, leading to hypokalemia as a common side effect. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is the opposite condition characterized by high potassium levels, which is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypernatremia (choice C) is increased sodium levels, while hyponatremia (choice D) is decreased sodium levels, neither of which are the most common side effects of furosemide. Therefore, choice A is the best answer.

5. Which of the following is the most appropriate diet for a client during the acute phase of myocardial infarction?

• A. Liquids as desired.
• B. Small, easily digested meals.
• C. Three regular meals per day.
• D. Nothing by mouth.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the acute phase of myocardial infarction, it is recommended to provide small, easily digested meals for the client. This type of diet is better tolerated as it reduces the workload on the heart, allowing for easier digestion and absorption of nutrients. Choice A, 'Liquids as desired,' may not provide adequate nutrition and may not be well-balanced. Choice C, 'Three regular meals per day,' may be too heavy for the client's weakened condition. Choice D, 'Nothing by mouth,' is not appropriate as the client still requires essential nutrients for recovery.

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