Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reading the chest x-ray report of a client who has just been intubated. The report states that the tip of the endotracheal tube lies 1 cm above the carina. The healthcare professional interprets that the tube is positioned above:

• A. The first tracheal cartilaginous ring
• B. The point where the larynx connects to the trachea
• C. The bifurcation of the right and left main stem bronchi
• D. The area connecting the oropharynx to the laryngopharynx

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The carina is a cartilaginous ridge that separates the openings of the two main stem (right and left) bronchi. If an endotracheal tube is inserted past the carina, the tube will enter the right main stem bronchus due to the natural curvature of the airway. This positioning is dangerous as only the right lung will be ventilated. It can be identified as only the right lung will have breath sounds and rise and fall with ventilation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not relate to the specific anatomical landmark mentioned in the scenario.

2. After an endotracheal tube is placed in a client who experienced sudden onset of respiratory distress, what should the nurse do?

• A. Secure the tube in place with tape
• B. Order a chest x-ray for the client
• C. Document the depth of tube insertion
• D. Auscultate both lungs for breath sounds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After endotracheal tube insertion, the nurse should auscultate both lungs for the presence of breath sounds. This step helps confirm proper tube placement and adequate ventilation. Auscultation of breath sounds is crucial to ensure that the tube is correctly positioned in the trachea and not in the esophagus. While securing the tube with tape is important, it is not the immediate priority after insertion. Ordering a chest x-ray may be necessary but is not the first action to take immediately post-intubation. Documenting the depth of tube insertion is important but ensuring proper ventilation through auscultation takes precedence.

3. A nurse cares for clients with urinary incontinence. Which types of incontinence are correctly paired with their clinical manifestations? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Stress incontinence – Urine loss with physical exertion
• B. Urge incontinence – Large amount of urine with each occurrence
• C. Overflow incontinence – Constant dribbling of urine
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, as all the choices are correctly paired with their clinical manifestations. Stress incontinence is characterized by urine loss with physical exertion, coughing, sneezing, or exercising. Urge incontinence presents with a sudden and strong urge to void, often accompanied by a large amount of urine released during each occurrence. Overflow incontinence occurs when the bladder is distended, leading to a constant dribbling of urine. Functional incontinence, not mentioned in the options, is the leakage of urine due to factors unrelated to a lower urinary tract disorder. Reflex incontinence, also not mentioned, is a condition resulting from abnormal detrusor contractions.

4. While assessing a female client who is chronically fatigued and was recently diagnosed with adrenal insufficiency, the client tells the nurse that she is very nervous that her hospitalization will cause her to lose her job. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Teach the client about the risk for infection.
• B. Offer support and care measures to reduce anxiety and stress.
• C. Encourage the client to rest quietly to reduce fatigue.
• D. Place a referral to social services to discuss financial options.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority intervention for the nurse is to offer support and care measures to reduce anxiety and stress. Addressing the client's emotional distress is crucial as the stress can exacerbate adrenal insufficiency. While teaching the client about the risk for infection (Choice A) is important, addressing the immediate emotional needs takes precedence. Encouraging the client to rest quietly (Choice C) is beneficial but does not directly address the client's current distress about job loss. Referring the client to social services (Choice D) for financial options is important, but at this moment, addressing the client's anxiety is the priority to promote emotional well-being.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a patient who is newly admitted to the intensive care unit. The nurse reviews the patient’s admission electrolytes and notes a serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. Which action by the nurse is correct?

• A. Administer the digoxin and monitor the patient’s electrocardiogram closely.
• B. Hold the digoxin dose and notify the provider of the patient’s lab values.
• C. Request an order for an intravenous bolus of potassium.
• D. Request an order for oral potassium supplements.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario presented, the patient has a low serum potassium level, which can predispose the patient to digoxin toxicity. It is essential for the nurse to hold the digoxin dose and promptly notify the healthcare provider of the abnormal lab values. Option A is incorrect because administering digoxin without addressing the low potassium level can potentiate toxicity. Option C is inappropriate as potassium should not be given as an IV bolus, especially in the case of hypokalemia. Option D is incorrect because oral potassium supplements may not be sufficient for rapidly correcting severe hypokalemia in an acute care setting.

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