Nursing Elites

1. While assisting a client with a closed chest tube drainage system to move from bed to a chair, the chest tube gets caught on the chair leg and becomes dislodged from the insertion site. What is the immediate priority for the nurse?

• A. Contacting the physician
• B. Reinserting the chest tube
• C. Transferring the client back to bed
• D. Covering the insertion site with a sterile occlusive dressing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The immediate priority for the nurse when a chest tube becomes dislodged from the insertion site is to cover the site with a sterile occlusive dressing. This action helps prevent air from entering the pleural space, which could lead to a pneumothorax. The nurse should then perform a respiratory assessment to monitor the client's breathing, assist the client back into bed to a position of comfort, and notify the physician. Reinserting the chest tube is a task for the physician, not the nurse, as it requires specific training and expertise.

2. Which of the following is a common complication of hypertension?

• A. Diabetes.
• B. Heart failure.
• C. Kidney failure.
• D. Stroke.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Stroke. Hypertension can lead to stroke due to the increased pressure on blood vessels in the brain, which can result in reduced blood flow and oxygen to the brain tissue. While choices B (Heart failure) and C (Kidney failure) can be complications of hypertension, they are not as directly associated as stroke. Choice A, Diabetes, is not a direct complication of hypertension but rather a separate condition that can be influenced by various factors. However, stroke is more commonly linked to the increased pressure on blood vessels in the brain in individuals with hypertension.

3. A client has a serum potassium level of 6.5 mmol/L, a serum creatinine level of 2 mg/dL, and a urine output of 350 mL/day. What is the best action by the nurse?

• A. Place the client on a cardiac monitor immediately.
• B. Teach the client to limit high-potassium foods.
• C. Continue to monitor the client’s intake and output.
• D. Ask to have the laboratory redraw the blood specimen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best immediate action by the nurse in this situation is to place the client on a cardiac monitor immediately. A serum potassium level of 6.5 mmol/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening dysrhythmias. Monitoring the cardiac status is crucial to detect any potential arrhythmias promptly. Teaching the client to limit high-potassium foods (Choice B) may be important for long-term management, but it is not the priority at this moment. Continuing to monitor intake and output (Choice C) is important for assessing renal function but does not address the immediate risk of dysrhythmias. Asking to have the laboratory redraw the blood specimen (Choice D) is unnecessary since the current results indicate a critical situation that requires immediate action.

4. Which of the following is a priority intervention for a patient with heart failure?

• A. Administering diuretics.
• B. Administering oxygen.
• C. Administering beta-blockers.
• D. Administering vasodilators.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen is a priority intervention in heart failure because it helps improve oxygenation, alleviate hypoxemia, and reduce the workload on the heart. Oxygen therapy is crucial in managing acute heart failure exacerbations. While diuretics (Choice A) are commonly used in heart failure to reduce fluid overload, administering oxygen takes precedence due to its immediate impact on oxygen delivery. Beta-blockers (Choice C) and vasodilators (Choice D) are also important in heart failure management, but in the acute setting, ensuring adequate oxygen supply is the priority.

5. During an interview with a client planning elective surgery, the client asks the nurse, 'What is the advantage of having a preferred provider organization insurance plan?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Neither plan allows the selection of healthcare providers or hospitals.
• B. There are fewer healthcare providers to choose from than in an HMO plan.
• C. An individual may select healthcare providers from outside of the PPO network.
• D. An individual can become a member of a PPO without belonging to a group.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best response for the nurse to provide is option C, as it highlights a key advantage of a preferred provider organization (PPO) insurance plan. By stating that an individual may select healthcare providers from outside of the PPO network, the nurse emphasizes the flexibility and freedom of choice that PPO plans offer. This feature allows individuals to seek care from providers who are not part of the PPO network, albeit at a higher cost. Option A is incorrect because both PPO and HMO plans allow the selection of healthcare providers, although with different restrictions. Option B is incorrect as PPO plans typically offer a larger selection of healthcare providers compared to HMO plans. Option D is incorrect as membership in a PPO usually requires affiliation with a group, such as through employment or membership in an organization.

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