HESI RN
Quizlet HESI Mental Health
1. A male client approaches the RN with an angry expression on his face and raises his voice, saying, “My roommate is the most selfish, self-centered, angry person I have ever met. If he loses his temper one more time with me, I am going to punch him out!” The RN recognizes that the client is using which defense mechanism?
- A. Denial.
- B. Projection.
- C. Rationalization.
- D. Splitting.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Projection. Projection involves attributing one's own unacceptable feelings or thoughts to others, as seen in the client’s accusations of his roommate’s behavior. In this scenario, the client is projecting his own anger and potential for violence onto his roommate. Choice A, Denial, involves refusing to acknowledge some aspect of reality, which is not evident in the scenario. Choice C, Rationalization, is a defense mechanism where logical reasons are given to justify behaviors that are actually based on unacceptable motives, which is not demonstrated by the client's behavior. Choice D, Splitting, is a defense mechanism where a person sees others as all good or all bad, not applicable in this case as the client is not portraying extreme views of his roommate.
2. A nurse manager in the emergency department considers policy changes in the organization and changes in the community, and tries to predict how these may impact the functioning of the unit. Which of the following decisional activities best describes this manager’s actions?
- A. Resource allocation
- B. Monitoring
- C. Job analysis and redesign
- D. Planning for the future
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Planning for the future. In this scenario, the nurse manager is engaging in decisional activities related to planning for the future. This involves analyzing potential impacts of policy changes and community shifts on the unit's functioning and making decisions based on predictions and foresight. Option A, resource allocation, focuses on distributing resources effectively. Option B, monitoring, involves observing and assessing current activities. Option C, job analysis and redesign, pertains to evaluating and restructuring roles and responsibilities within the unit, which is not the primary focus of the scenario provided.
3. A healthcare provider caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiographic change would the healthcare provider expect to note based on the magnesium level?
- A. Prominent U waves
- B. Prolonged PR interval
- C. Depressed ST segment
- D. Widened QRS complexes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL can cause a depressed ST segment on the ECG. Magnesium deficiency commonly leads to ST segment depression on an electrocardiogram. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia, prolonged PR interval is seen in conditions like first-degree heart block, and widened QRS complexes are typically related to conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.
4. At what point is a fetus considered viable?
- A. 26 weeks
- B. 28 weeks
- C. 37 weeks
- D. 12 weeks
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A fetus is considered viable after 37 weeks of gestation. At this stage, the fetus has a higher chance of surviving outside the womb with medical support. Choice A (26 weeks), Choice B (28 weeks), and Choice D (12 weeks) are incorrect because a fetus is not typically considered viable at those earlier gestational ages.
5. Discuss the anatomical/physiological changes in pregnancy related to the breasts.
- A. Breast tenderness increases, circulatory supply to the breasts increases, leading to breast enlargement, and colostrum secretion occurs.
- B. Breast tenderness decreases, and there is no significant change in breast size.
- C. Breast changes include decreased tenderness and reduced circulatory supply.
- D. Breasts do not undergo significant changes during pregnancy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During pregnancy, the breasts undergo significant anatomical and physiological changes. These changes include increased breast tenderness, an increase in circulatory supply to the breasts, resulting in breast enlargement, and the secretion of colostrum. Choice B is incorrect as breast tenderness actually increases during pregnancy. Choice C is incorrect as the circulatory supply to the breasts increases rather than reduces. Choice D is incorrect as breasts do undergo notable changes during pregnancy.