Nursing Elites

1. A client admitted with left-sided heart failure presents with shortness of breath and pink frothy sputum. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Decreased breath sounds bilaterally.
• B. Heart rate of 110 bpm and irregular rhythm.
• C. Pink frothy sputum and increased respiratory rate.
• D. Elevated blood pressure and shortness of breath.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: Pink frothy sputum and increased respiratory rate. Pink frothy sputum is a sign of pulmonary edema, indicating fluid in the lungs, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory failure. Increased respiratory rate is also concerning as it indicates the body's effort to compensate for the decreased oxygenation. Options A, B, and D are not the most critical findings in this situation. Decreased breath sounds bilaterally may indicate a pneumothorax or atelectasis, heart rate of 110 bpm and irregular rhythm can be managed with medications and further assessment, and elevated blood pressure with shortness of breath is not as urgent as pink frothy sputum and increased respiratory rate.

2. The nurse observes that a client’s wrist restraint is secured to the side rail of the bed. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Ensure that the restraint is snug against the client’s wrist.
• B. Reposition the restraint tie onto the bedframe.
• C. Double knot the restraint to ensure safety.
• D. Leave the restraint in place and notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to reposition the restraint tie onto the bedframe. Restraints should always be secured to the bedframe, not the side rails, to prevent injury to the client in case the bed is adjusted. Choice A is incorrect because the issue is with the attachment point, not the snugness of the restraint. Choice C is incorrect as double knotting the restraint does not address the incorrect attachment point. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should not leave the restraint in the wrong position; instead, it should be moved to the correct location on the bedframe.

3. What does the nurse's signature on the client’s surgical consent form signify?

• A. The client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done
• B. The client is competent to sign the consent without impairment of judgment
• C. The client understands the risks and benefits associated with the procedure
• D. The client has signed the form freely and voluntarily

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's signature on a surgical consent form signifies that the client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done. This is the correct answer because the nurse's signature does not imply the client's competence, understanding of risks and benefits, or that the client signed the form freely and voluntarily. The nurse's role is to verify that the client has made an informed decision and is providing consent for the procedure.

4. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?

• A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
• B. To promote oxygenation by improving lung expansion
• C. To encourage use of accessory muscles for breathing
• D. To drain secretions and prevent aspiration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed in a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is essential to drain secretions and prevent aspiration. This position helps facilitate the removal of secretions from the airways, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the primary reason for elevating the head of the bed in ARDS is to assist with secretion drainage and prevent complications associated with aspiration.

5. A young adult visits the clinic reporting symptoms associated with gastritis. Which information in the client's history is most important for the nurse to address in the teaching plan?

• A. Experiences occasional heartburn after eating spicy food
• B. Consumes 10 or more drinks of alcohol every weekend
• C. Reports frequent use of NSAIDs
• D. Has a history of peptic ulcers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Excessive alcohol consumption is a major risk factor for gastritis and should be prioritized in the teaching plan. While spicy foods and NSAIDs can contribute to gastritis, alcohol consumption is the most significant factor that needs immediate lifestyle changes to prevent worsening of gastritis symptoms. Peptic ulcers, although relevant, are not as directly linked to exacerbating gastritis symptoms as alcohol consumption.

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