Nursing Elites

1. A child receives a prescription for amantadine 42 mg PO BID. Amantadine is available as a 50 mg/5 mL syrup. Using a supplied calibrated measuring device, how many mL should be administered per dose? (Round to the nearest tenth.)

• A. 4.2 mL
• B. 5 mL
• C. 3.6 mL
• D. 4 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the mL per dose, divide the prescribed dose (42 mg) by the concentration of the syrup (50 mg/5 mL) and then convert the result to mL. 42 mg / 50 mg = 0.84. To find the amount in mL, multiply 0.84 by 5 mL, which equals 4.2 mL. Therefore, 4.2 mL should be administered per dose.

2. A 2-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit.
• B. Administer the scheduled dose.
• C. Calculate the safe dose range.
• D. Review the serum digoxin level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario since the heart rate of 128 bpm is within an acceptable range for a 2-year-old child with heart failure. Monitoring for signs of digoxin toxicity is important; however, the immediate action required is to administer the scheduled dose as prescribed based on the heart rate assessment.

3. A mother brings her 3-month-old infant to the clinic, concerned about frequent vomiting after feeding. The practical nurse (PN) suspects gastroesophageal reflux (GER). Which recommendation should the PN provide to the mother?

• A. Feed the infant in a prone position.
• B. Provide larger, less frequent feedings.
• C. Keep the infant upright for 30 minutes after feeding.
• D. Offer only formula thickened with rice cereal.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct recommendation for reducing symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux (GER) in infants is to keep the infant upright for 30 minutes after feeding. This position helps prevent the backflow of stomach contents, alleviating symptoms of reflux. Placing the infant in a prone position or providing larger, less frequent feedings may worsen symptoms by increasing the likelihood of regurgitation. Offering only formula thickened with rice cereal is not the first-line intervention for GER and should not be recommended initially.

4. A 6-year-old child with sickle cell anemia presents to the emergency department with severe pain in the legs and abdomen. The child is crying and states that the pain is unbearable. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Apply warm compresses to the painful areas
• B. Administer prescribed pain medication
• C. Encourage the child to drink fluids
• D. Monitor the child’s oxygen saturation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a sickle cell crisis, pain management is a priority to alleviate the child's suffering. Administering the prescribed pain medication is crucial to address the severe pain experienced by the child. Warm compresses, encouraging fluid intake, and monitoring oxygen saturation are important interventions but should follow the priority of pain management in this situation.

5. A mother brings her school-aged daughter to the pediatric clinic for evaluation of her anti-epileptic medication regimen. What information should the nurse provide to the mother?

• A. The medication dose will be tapered over a period of 2 weeks when being discontinued
• B. If seizures return, multiple medications will be prescribed for another 2 years
• C. A dose of valproic acid (Depakote) should be available in the event of status epilepticus
• D. Phenytoin (Dilantin) and phenobarbital (Luminal) should be taken for life

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Antiepileptic drugs should not be abruptly stopped as it may lead to seizure recurrence. Tapering the medication over a period of 2 weeks helps to prevent withdrawal effects and minimize the risk of seizures. Choice B is incorrect because starting multiple medications for seizure recurrence is not the first-line approach. Choice C is incorrect because valproic acid is not the first-line medication given in the event of status epilepticus. Choice D is incorrect because antiepileptic medications are usually evaluated over time and adjusted based on the individual's response; it is not always necessary to take them for life.

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