HESI RN
HESI Practice Test Pediatrics
1. A child receives a prescription for amantadine 42 mg PO BID. Amantadine is available as a 50 mg/5 mL syrup. Using a supplied calibrated measuring device, how many mL should be administered per dose? (Round to the nearest tenth.)
- A. 4.2 mL
- B. 5 mL
- C. 3.6 mL
- D. 4 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the mL per dose, divide the prescribed dose (42 mg) by the concentration of the syrup (50 mg/5 mL) and then convert the result to mL. 42 mg / 50 mg = 0.84. To find the amount in mL, multiply 0.84 by 5 mL, which equals 4.2 mL. Therefore, 4.2 mL should be administered per dose.
2. After a sudden loss of consciousness, a female client is taken to the ED, and the initial assessment indicates that her blood glucose level is critically low. Once her glucose level is stabilized, the client reports that she was recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and is being treated at an outpatient clinic. Which intervention is most important to include in this client's discharge plan?
- A. Describe the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia.
- B. Encourage a low-carbohydrate and high-protein diet.
- C. Reinforce the need to continue outpatient treatment.
- D. Suggest wearing a medical alert bracelet at all times.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging a low-carbohydrate and high-protein diet is crucial for a client recovering from anorexia nervosa to prevent hypoglycemic episodes. Choice A is not the most important intervention at this point since the client is already aware of hypoglycemia based on the recent event. Choice C is important but not the priority in this situation where dietary intervention is crucial. Choice D, suggesting a medical alert bracelet, is not as essential as ensuring proper nutrition to prevent further hypoglycemic episodes.
3. An antidepressant medication is prescribed for a client who reports sleeping only 4 hours in the past 2 days and weight loss of 9 lbs within the last month. Which client goal is most important to achieve within the first three days of treatment?
- A. Meet scheduled appointments with a dietitian.
- B. Sleep at least 6 hours a night.
- C. Understand the purpose of the medication regimen.
- D. Describe the reasons for hospitalization.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important goal to achieve within the first three days of treatment is to ensure the client can sleep at least 6 hours a night. Adequate sleep is essential for stabilizing mood and improving overall functioning. Improving sleep patterns is crucial to address the reported sleep deficit and weight loss associated with depression. Choice A is not as urgent as improving sleep patterns. Choice C is important but not as immediate as addressing the sleep deficit. Choice D is unrelated to the immediate treatment goal of improving sleep and managing symptoms of depression.
4. A client with a history of type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention is most important?
- A. Administer intravenous fluids as prescribed.
- B. Administer insulin as prescribed.
- C. Monitor the client's urine output.
- D. Check the client's blood glucose level.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering insulin is the most important intervention in managing diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin helps to reduce blood glucose levels and correct metabolic acidosis, which are critical in the treatment of DKA. While administering intravenous fluids is essential to manage dehydration, insulin takes precedence in treating the underlying cause of DKA. Monitoring urine output is important for assessing renal function but is not the primary intervention in managing DKA. Checking the client's blood glucose level is necessary, but administering insulin to reduce high blood glucose levels is the key priority in treating DKA.
5. A combination multi-drug cocktail is being considered for an asymptomatic HIV-infected client with a CD4 cell count of 500. Which nursing assessment of the client is most crucial in determining whether therapy should be initiated?
- A. Presence of viral symptoms
- B. Engages in high-risk behaviors
- C. Willingness to comply with complex drug schedules
- D. History of opportunistic infections
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most crucial nursing assessment in determining whether therapy should be initiated for an asymptomatic HIV-infected client with a CD4 cell count of 500 is the client's willingness to comply with complex drug schedules. Adherence to antiretroviral therapy is essential for its effectiveness. Assessing the client's willingness and ability to comply with the complex medication regimen is crucial to ensure successful treatment and prevent drug resistance. Choices A, B, and D, although important in the overall care of the client, are not as crucial as assessing the client's willingness to adhere to the prescribed drug regimen.