HESI RN
HESI Pediatric Practice Exam
1. A 9-year-old child is brought to the clinic with complaints of fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath. The nurse notes that the child has a history of iron-deficiency anemia. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Administer iron supplements as prescribed
- B. Monitor the child’s hemoglobin levels
- C. Educate the parents about dietary sources of iron
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a child with a history of iron-deficiency anemia presenting with symptoms of fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, the priority action for the nurse is to administer iron supplements as prescribed. Iron supplementation is essential to treat iron-deficiency anemia and improve the child's symptoms promptly. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is important but administering iron supplements takes precedence to address the underlying cause. Educating parents about dietary iron sources is valuable for prevention but not the immediate priority. Notifying the healthcare provider may be necessary but should not delay the initiation of treatment with iron supplements.
2. When instilling ear drops in a 2-year-old child, how should the practical nurse (PN) position the earlobe to straighten the external auditory canal?
- A. Up and back.
- B. Down and back.
- C. Up and forward.
- D. Down and forward.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering ear drops to a child under three years old, it is essential to pull the earlobe down and back. This positioning helps straighten the external auditory canal, facilitating the proper administration of the ear drops. Pulling the earlobe down and back in young children aims to ensure that the medication reaches the intended area for optimal effectiveness.
3. A 3-year-old child with a high fever and sore throat is brought to the clinic. The nurse observes that the child is drooling and has difficulty swallowing. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Administer antipyretic medication
- B. Prepare for emergency airway management
- C. Offer the child ice chips to suck on
- D. Assess the child’s hydration status
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a 3-year-old child with drooling, difficulty swallowing, high fever, and sore throat, the nurse should prioritize preparing for emergency airway management. These signs may indicate epiglottitis, a condition that can quickly obstruct the airway, leading to respiratory distress and potentially fatal outcomes if not managed promptly. Administering antipyretic medication (Choice A) may be necessary later but is not the priority. Offering ice chips (Choice C) is contraindicated as the child has difficulty swallowing. Assessing hydration status (Choice D) is important but not the priority when the airway is at risk.
4. In a 6-year-old child with asthma experiencing difficulty breathing and using accessory muscles to breathe with a peak flow reading in the red zone, what should the nurse do first?
- A. Administer a nebulized bronchodilator
- B. Obtain an arterial blood gas
- C. Start the child on oxygen therapy
- D. Contact the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for a 6-year-old child with asthma who is experiencing difficulty breathing, using accessory muscles to breathe, and has a peak flow reading in the red zone is to administer a nebulized bronchodilator first. Nebulized bronchodilators work rapidly to open up the airways, providing immediate relief and improving breathing. This intervention is crucial in addressing the acute respiratory distress the child is facing. Obtaining an arterial blood gas, starting oxygen therapy, or contacting the healthcare provider can be considered after the initial administration of the bronchodilator, as they are not the primary interventions needed to manage the child's acute respiratory distress.
5. A 2-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Determine the pulse deficit.
- B. Administer the scheduled dose.
- C. Calculate the safe dose range.
- D. Review the serum digoxin level.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario. The nurse obtained an apical heart rate of 128 bpm, which is within the expected range for a 2-year-old child. Therefore, there is no immediate concern to withhold the scheduled dose of digoxin. Determining the pulse deficit is not necessary as the heart rate is appropriate. Calculating the safe dose range is not needed as the current dose is within the therapeutic range. Reviewing the serum digoxin level may be indicated later for monitoring but is not urgent based on the heart rate assessment. Administering the scheduled dose of digoxin is the correct action at this time.
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