Nursing Elites

1. A 9-year-old child is brought to the clinic with complaints of fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath. The nurse notes that the child has a history of iron-deficiency anemia. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer iron supplements as prescribed
• B. Monitor the child’s hemoglobin levels
• C. Educate the parents about dietary sources of iron
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child with a history of iron-deficiency anemia presenting with symptoms of fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, the priority action for the nurse is to administer iron supplements as prescribed. Iron supplementation is essential to treat iron-deficiency anemia and improve the child's symptoms promptly. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is important but administering iron supplements takes precedence to address the underlying cause. Educating parents about dietary iron sources is valuable for prevention but not the immediate priority. Notifying the healthcare provider may be necessary but should not delay the initiation of treatment with iron supplements.

2. The mother of a 4-month-old asks the nurse for advice in preventing diaper rash. What suggestion should the nurse provide?

• A. At diaper change generously powder the baby's diaper area with talcum powder to promote dryness.
• B. Wash the diaper area every 2 hours with soap and water to help prevent skin breakdown.
• C. Use a barrier cream, such as zinc oxide, which does not have to be completely removed with each diaper change.
• D. Place a cloth diaper inside the disposable diaper for overnight periods when increased wearing time is likely.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using a barrier cream like zinc oxide protects the skin and helps prevent diaper rash.

3. A 6-year-old boy with bronchial asthma takes the beta-adrenergic agonist albuterol (Proventil). The child’s mother tells the nurse that she uses this medication to open her son’s airway when he is having trouble breathing. What is the nurse’s best response?

• A. Recommend that the mother bring the child in for immediate evaluation
• B. Advise the mother that overuse of the drug may cause chronic bronchitis
• C. Assure the mother that she is using the medication correctly
• D. Confirm that the medication helps to reduce airway inflammation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to assure the mother that she is using the medication correctly. Albuterol is a beta-adrenergic agonist that helps open the airways during an asthma attack. By reassuring the mother, the nurse reinforces the correct usage of the medication, which is crucial in managing the child's asthma symptoms effectively. Option A is incorrect because immediate evaluation may not be necessary if the child's symptoms are being managed effectively with albuterol. Option B is incorrect as chronic bronchitis is not typically associated with the overuse of albuterol. Option D is incorrect as albuterol primarily acts as a bronchodilator and does not directly reduce airway inflammation.

4. What should the nurse do first for a 6-year-old with asthma showing a prolonged expiratory phase, wheezing, and 35% of personal best peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR)?

• A. Administer a prescribed bronchodilator.
• B. Encourage the child to cough and take deep breaths.
• C. Report the findings to the healthcare provider.
• D. Identify the triggers that precipitated this attack.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority action in managing an acute asthma exacerbation in a child. Bronchodilators help to relax the muscles around the airways, opening them up and improving breathing. This intervention aims to address the immediate breathing difficulty and should be done promptly to provide relief for the child. Encouraging coughing and deep breaths (choice B) may worsen the child's condition by further constricting the airways. Reporting findings to the healthcare provider (choice C) is important but not the immediate priority in this acute situation. Identifying triggers (choice D) is crucial for long-term asthma management but is not the first step when managing an acute exacerbation.

5. A 4-month-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother because she has had a cold for 2 or 3 days and woke up this morning with a hacking cough and difficulty breathing. Which additional assessment finding should alert the nurse that the child is in acute respiratory distress?

• A. Bilateral bronchial breath sounds.
• B. Diaphragmatic breathing.
• C. A resting respiratory rate of 35 breaths per minute.
• D. Flaring of the nares.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Flaring of the nares is a classic sign of acute respiratory distress in infants. It indicates increased work of breathing and is a visible cue that the child is struggling to breathe. This finding should alert healthcare providers to the severity of the respiratory distress and the need for prompt intervention to support the child's breathing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Bilateral bronchial breath sounds are associated with conditions like pneumonia, but they do not specifically indicate acute respiratory distress. Diaphragmatic breathing is a normal breathing pattern and not a sign of distress. A resting respiratory rate of 35 breaths per minute is within the expected range for a 4-month-old infant and does not necessarily indicate acute respiratory distress.

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