Nursing Elites

1. A 9-year-old child is brought to the clinic with a fever, rash, and swollen joints. The nurse notes that the child had a sore throat two weeks ago that was not treated. What condition should the nurse suspect?

• A. Scarlet fever
• B. Rheumatic fever
• C. Kawasaki disease
• D. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the child's symptoms of fever, rash, and swollen joints following an untreated sore throat two weeks ago are indicative of rheumatic fever. Rheumatic fever can develop as a complication of untreated streptococcal infections, leading to systemic inflammation and affecting various organs, including the joints. This condition manifests with symptoms such as fever, rash, and swollen joints, aligning with the child's presentation in this case. Scarlet fever typically presents with a sandpapery rash and strawberry tongue but does not involve joint inflammation. Kawasaki disease presents with fever, rash, and mucous membrane changes but does not typically involve joint swelling. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis can cause joint swelling but is not directly linked to a recent untreated sore throat.

2. A 9-year-old child with a history of type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic for a check-up. The nurse notes that the child's hemoglobin A1c is 8.5%. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Increase the child’s insulin dose
• B. Review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique
• C. Discuss the possibility of switching to oral hypoglycemics
• D. Schedule a follow-up appointment in three months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A hemoglobin A1c of 8.5% indicates suboptimal diabetes control. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique. This approach can help identify potential areas for improvement and optimize diabetes management, aiming to lower the hemoglobin A1c levels towards the target range. Increasing the child’s insulin dose (Choice A) without addressing dietary habits and administration technique may not lead to better control and can increase the risk of hypoglycemia. Switching to oral hypoglycemics (Choice C) is not appropriate for type 1 diabetes management. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in three months (Choice D) without intervening to improve diabetes control is not the best immediate action.

3. When developing a behavior modification program for an extremely aggressive 10-year-old boy, what should the nurse do first?

• A. Identify what activities, foods, and toys the child enjoys
• B. Assess the child's previous reactions to punishment
• C. Offer the child positive feedback
• D. Involve other children on the unit in describing the token system

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The first step in developing a behavior modification program for an extremely aggressive 10-year-old boy is to identify what activities, foods, and toys the child enjoys. Understanding the child's motivations is crucial in creating an effective behavior modification plan tailored to his interests and preferences, which can help in positively reinforcing desired behaviors.

4. The nurse is caring for a 15-year-old adolescent who is admitted with a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa. The adolescent’s vital signs are stable, but the nurse notes that the client has dry skin and appears thin. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Initiate a structured eating plan for the client
• B. Establish a therapeutic relationship with the client
• C. Monitor the client’s electrolyte levels
• D. Provide education on healthy eating habits

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with bulimia nervosa, electrolyte imbalances are common due to purging behaviors and can lead to severe complications. Monitoring electrolyte levels is essential to detect and manage any imbalances promptly, as they can be life-threatening.

5. What is the priority action for a 2-year-old child with croup presenting with a barking cough and stridor?

• A. Administer a corticosteroid
• B. Obtain a throat culture
• C. Administer nebulized epinephrine
• D. Place the child in an upright position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority action for a 2-year-old child with croup and stridor is to administer nebulized epinephrine. Nebulized epinephrine helps reduce airway swelling, alleviate symptoms, and improve breathing by causing vasoconstriction and reducing upper airway edema. Administering a corticosteroid may be done but is not the priority in this scenario. Obtaining a throat culture is not necessary for the immediate management of croup. Placing the child in an upright position can aid in breathing but is not the priority action when the child is presenting with stridor.

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