Nursing Elites

1. A 7-year-old child with sickle cell anemia presents to the emergency department with severe pain in the arms and legs. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer prescribed pain medication
• B. Apply warm compresses to the affected areas
• C. Encourage the child to drink fluids
• D. Monitor the child’s oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a sickle cell crisis, pain management is a priority due to the severe pain experienced by the child. Administering prescribed pain medication is crucial to alleviate the pain and provide comfort to the child. Once pain is controlled, other comfort measures like applying warm compresses and encouraging fluid intake can be implemented. Monitoring oxygen saturation is important but not the priority action when dealing with severe pain in a sickle cell crisis.

2. What information should the nurse provide the parents of a 3-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) who are concerned about having more children?

• A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family.
• B. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated, leading to muscle damage.
• C. The mother's lack of the protein dystrophin can impact the XXXX muscle groups in males.
• D. Birth trauma during a breech vaginal birth can damage the spinal cord, resulting in muscle weakness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder that primarily affects male children in the family. Since it is X-linked, sons inherit the mutation from their mothers who are carriers of the abnormal gene. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the parents that any future sons they have would have a 50% chance of inheriting the mutation and having DMD, while daughters would have a 50% chance of being carriers like the mother.

3. A school-age child with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought to the emergency department with confusion and rapid breathing. The practical nurse (PN) suspects diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which initial intervention should the PN anticipate?

• A. Administer subcutaneous insulin.
• B. Give oral glucose tablets.
• C. Start intravenous fluids.
• D. Administer oxygen therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Intravenous fluids are typically the initial intervention in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) to treat dehydration and stabilize the patient's condition. The fluid replacement helps correct electrolyte imbalances and improve perfusion, which are crucial in managing DKA. Insulin therapy follows after fluid resuscitation to address the underlying cause of DKA, which is the lack of insulin leading to increased ketone production. Administering subcutaneous insulin (Choice A) would be premature without first addressing the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Giving oral glucose tablets (Choice B) is contraindicated in DKA as the patient already has high blood glucose levels. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice D) may be necessary based on the patient's condition, but addressing dehydration with intravenous fluids is the priority intervention in DKA.

4. The mother of a 9-month-old girl provides the practical nurse with information about her daughter's diet. Which statement by the mother may indicate why the infant has been diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia?

• A. She almost never drinks sugary water.
• B. She has been on whole milk for 7 months.
• C. She likes to chew on bread as a snack.
• D. She doesn't like to eat peaches or pears.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Infants should not be given cow's milk before 1 year of age as it can interfere with iron absorption and lead to anemia. Choice A is incorrect as avoiding sugary water is actually a good practice. Choice C is unrelated to iron-deficiency anemia. Choice D, not liking peaches or pears, is also not directly related to iron-deficiency anemia.

5. A 2-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit.
• B. Administer the scheduled dose.
• C. Calculate the safe dose range.
• D. Review the serum digoxin level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario. The nurse obtained an apical heart rate of 128 bpm, which is within the expected range for a 2-year-old child. Therefore, there is no immediate concern to withhold the scheduled dose of digoxin. Determining the pulse deficit is not necessary as the heart rate is appropriate. Calculating the safe dose range is not needed as the current dose is within the therapeutic range. Reviewing the serum digoxin level may be indicated later for monitoring but is not urgent based on the heart rate assessment. Administering the scheduled dose of digoxin is the correct action at this time.

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