a 7 year old child with sickle cell anemia presents to the emergency department with severe pain in the arms and legs what is the nurses priority acti
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Practice Test Pediatrics

1. A 7-year-old child with sickle cell anemia presents to the emergency department with severe pain in the arms and legs. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a sickle cell crisis, pain management is a priority due to the severe pain experienced by the child. Administering prescribed pain medication is crucial to alleviate the pain and provide comfort to the child. Once pain is controlled, other comfort measures like applying warm compresses and encouraging fluid intake can be implemented. Monitoring oxygen saturation is important but not the priority action when dealing with severe pain in a sickle cell crisis.

2. What action should be taken by the healthcare provider for a child who has ingested a corrosive product?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of corrosive product ingestion, it is crucial to contact the poison control center for guidance. Inducing vomiting or attempting to neutralize the agent can lead to further harm. The poison control center professionals are trained to provide specific instructions tailored to the situation, ensuring the best possible outcome for the child. Therefore, the correct action is to call the poison control center for appropriate advice. Inducing vomiting can cause additional damage by re-exposing the esophagus and mouth to the corrosive substance. Administering vinegar or lemon juice is not recommended as it may worsen the situation by causing a chemical reaction. While activated charcoal can be useful in some cases of poisoning, it is not recommended for corrosive substances as it is ineffective in binding to them.

3. A 9-year-old child with a history of type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic for a check-up. The nurse notes that the child's hemoglobin A1c is 8.5%. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A hemoglobin A1c of 8.5% indicates suboptimal diabetes control. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique. This approach can help identify potential areas for improvement and optimize diabetes management, aiming to lower the hemoglobin A1c levels towards the target range. Increasing the child’s insulin dose (Choice A) without addressing dietary habits and administration technique may not lead to better control and can increase the risk of hypoglycemia. Switching to oral hypoglycemics (Choice C) is not appropriate for type 1 diabetes management. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in three months (Choice D) without intervening to improve diabetes control is not the best immediate action.

4. A 4-month-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother because she has had a cold for 2 or 3 days and woke up this morning with a hacking cough and difficulty breathing. Which additional assessment finding should alert the nurse that the child is in acute respiratory distress?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Flaring of the nares is a classic sign of acute respiratory distress in infants. It indicates increased work of breathing and is a visible cue that the child is struggling to breathe. This finding should alert healthcare providers to the severity of the respiratory distress and the need for prompt intervention to support the child's breathing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Bilateral bronchial breath sounds are associated with conditions like pneumonia, but they do not specifically indicate acute respiratory distress. Diaphragmatic breathing is a normal breathing pattern and not a sign of distress. A resting respiratory rate of 35 breaths per minute is within the expected range for a 4-month-old infant and does not necessarily indicate acute respiratory distress.

5. What action should the nurse implement after the infusion is complete for a 16-year-old with acute myelocytic leukemia receiving chemotherapy via an implanted medication port at the outpatient oncology clinic?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After completing the chemotherapy infusion via the implanted medication port, the nurse should flush the mediport with saline and heparin solution. This action helps prevent clot formation in the port, ensuring its patency for future use and reducing the risk of complications associated with catheter occlusion. Administering Zofran (Choice A) is used for managing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, not for post-infusion care. Obtaining blood samples for RBCs, WBCs, and platelets (Choice B) is important for monitoring the patient's blood count but is not the immediate post-infusion priority. Initiating an infusion of normal saline (Choice D) is not necessary after completing the chemotherapy infusion.

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