Nursing Elites

1. A 6-year-old child with a history of asthma is brought to the clinic with complaints of wheezing and shortness of breath. The nurse notes that the child is using accessory muscles to breathe. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator
• B. Obtain a peak flow reading
• C. Apply oxygen
• D. Perform a complete respiratory assessment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the initial priority as it helps open the child's airways, reducing the wheezing and shortness of breath. This intervention aims to provide immediate relief and improve the child's respiratory distress. Obtaining a peak flow reading or applying oxygen may be necessary after administering the bronchodilator, but the priority is to address the acute symptoms of wheezing and shortness of breath first. Performing a complete respiratory assessment can be done after the immediate intervention of administering the bronchodilator to further evaluate the child's respiratory status.

2. What is the priority intervention for a 16-year-old client with a history of depression who is brought to the emergency department after taking an overdose of acetaminophen?

• A. Administer activated charcoal
• B. Place the client on continuous cardiac monitoring
• C. Prepare for gastric lavage
• D. Administer N-acetylcysteine as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority intervention for a client who has taken an acetaminophen overdose is to administer N-acetylcysteine promptly. N-acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and helps prevent liver damage. Activated charcoal may be used in certain cases, but N-acetylcysteine takes precedence as it directly counteracts the toxic effects of acetaminophen. Continuous cardiac monitoring and gastric lavage are not the priority interventions for acetaminophen overdose. Administering N-acetylcysteine is crucial to prevent liver damage and address the overdose, making it the most urgent action in this scenario.

3. A child with sickle cell anemia is being treated for a vaso-occlusive crisis. Which intervention should the practical nurse (PN) implement?

• A. Apply cold packs to painful areas.
• B. Encourage increased fluid intake.
• C. Administer high doses of vitamin C.
• D. Provide low-calorie meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging increased fluid intake is crucial in managing vaso-occlusive crises in patients with sickle cell anemia. Dehydration can worsen these crises, so adequate hydration is essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes. Applying cold packs to painful areas may exacerbate vaso-occlusive crises by causing vasoconstriction. Administering high doses of vitamin C is not directly indicated for vaso-occlusive crises in sickle cell anemia. Providing low-calorie meals is not the priority during a vaso-occlusive crisis; maintaining adequate nutrition is important, but hydration takes precedence in this situation.

4. Which statement by a school-aged client going to summer camp indicates the best understanding of the mode of transmission of Lyme disease?

• A. I'll cover my mouth with a wet cloth if there's too much dust blowing.
• B. Cuts and scrapes need to be washed out and covered right away.
• C. I'm not going to swim where the water is standing still or feels too hot.
• D. I have to wear long sleeves and pants when we're hiking around the pond.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Wearing long sleeves and pants is an effective measure to prevent tick bites, which can transmit Lyme disease. Ticks are commonly found in wooded areas and tall grass, so covering exposed skin helps reduce the risk of tick bites and subsequently lowers the risk of contracting Lyme disease. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the mode of transmission of Lyme disease. Option A pertains to respiratory protection against dust, Option B focuses on wound care, and Option C relates to water safety, none of which are directly related to preventing Lyme disease transmission.

5. The nurse determines that an infant admitted for surgical repair of an inguinal hernia voids a urinary stream from the ventral surface of the penis. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Document the finding
• B. Palpate scrotum for testicular descent
• C. Assess for bladder distension
• D. Auscultate bowel sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to document the finding. The infant voiding a urinary stream from the ventral surface of the penis suggests hypospadias, a condition where the urethral opening is on the underside of the penis. This finding is crucial information that needs to be documented for further evaluation. Palpating the scrotum for testicular descent, assessing for bladder distension, and auscultating bowel sounds are not appropriate actions based on the presented scenario and do not address the specific concern of the urinary stream location.

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