Nursing Elites

1. A 6-year-old child with a history of asthma is brought to the clinic with complaints of wheezing and shortness of breath. The nurse notes that the child is using accessory muscles to breathe. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator
• B. Obtain a peak flow reading
• C. Apply oxygen
• D. Perform a complete respiratory assessment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the initial priority as it helps open the child's airways, reducing the wheezing and shortness of breath. This intervention aims to provide immediate relief and improve the child's respiratory distress. Obtaining a peak flow reading or applying oxygen may be necessary after administering the bronchodilator, but the priority is to address the acute symptoms of wheezing and shortness of breath first. Performing a complete respiratory assessment can be done after the immediate intervention of administering the bronchodilator to further evaluate the child's respiratory status.

2. Which assessment finding should the healthcare provider identify as most concerning in a child with acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. Hypertension.
• B. Gross hematuria.
• C. Proteinuria.
• D. Periorbital edema.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child with acute glomerulonephritis, hypertension is the most concerning assessment finding as it can indicate worsening renal function. Hypertension is a common complication of glomerulonephritis and can lead to further kidney damage if not managed promptly. Monitoring and controlling blood pressure is crucial in these cases to prevent complications and preserve renal function. Gross hematuria, proteinuria, and periorbital edema are also common findings in acute glomerulonephritis but hypertension poses a higher risk for renal damage if left uncontrolled.

3. The caregiver is caring for a 10-year-old child with a history of frequent ear infections. The parents are concerned about their child’s hearing and speech development. What is the caregiver’s best response?

• A. Let’s schedule a hearing test and refer to a speech therapist if needed
• B. Most children outgrow ear infections and speech delays
• C. There is no need to worry unless the infections persist into adolescence
• D. Your child’s hearing and speech should be normal by now

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The appropriate response for the caregiver is to address the parents' concerns by suggesting scheduling a hearing test and potentially referring the child to a speech therapist if necessary. This proactive approach can help evaluate and support the child's hearing and speech development effectively. Choice B is incorrect as assuming that most children outgrow ear infections and speech delays may overlook potential issues that need intervention. Choice C is wrong because waiting until adolescence to address concerns may lead to missed opportunities for early intervention. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the parents' valid concerns without offering a solution or further evaluation.

4. According to Erikson's theory, what behavioral pattern should be displayed by a child who has not developed a sense of competence?

• A. Guilt.
• B. Shame.
• C. Alienation.
• D. Inferiority.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Erikson's theory of psychosocial development outlines that the failure to establish a sense of competence during the industry vs. inferiority stage results in feelings of inferiority. This stage occurs during middle childhood where children strive to master skills and tasks. If they are unable to meet challenges successfully, they may start feeling inferior to their peers and may lack confidence in their abilities. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as guilt, shame, and alienation are not the specific behavioral patterns associated with the lack of developing a sense of competence according to Erikson's theory.

5. A mother brings her school-aged daughter to the pediatric clinic for evaluation of her anti-epileptic medication regimen. What information should the nurse provide to the mother?

• A. The medication dose will be tapered over a period of 2 weeks when being discontinued
• B. If seizures return, multiple medications will be prescribed for another 2 years
• C. A dose of valproic acid (Depakote) should be available in the event of status epilepticus
• D. Phenytoin (Dilantin) and phenobarbital (Luminal) should be taken for life

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Antiepileptic drugs should not be abruptly stopped as it may lead to seizure recurrence. Tapering the medication over a period of 2 weeks helps to prevent withdrawal effects and minimize the risk of seizures. Choice B is incorrect because starting multiple medications for seizure recurrence is not the first-line approach. Choice C is incorrect because valproic acid is not the first-line medication given in the event of status epilepticus. Choice D is incorrect because antiepileptic medications are usually evaluated over time and adjusted based on the individual's response; it is not always necessary to take them for life.

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