Nursing Elites

1. A 6-year-old child with a history of asthma is brought to the clinic with complaints of wheezing and shortness of breath. The nurse notes that the child is using accessory muscles to breathe. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator
• B. Obtain a peak flow reading
• C. Apply oxygen
• D. Perform a complete respiratory assessment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the initial priority as it helps open the child's airways, reducing the wheezing and shortness of breath. This intervention aims to provide immediate relief and improve the child's respiratory distress. Obtaining a peak flow reading or applying oxygen may be necessary after administering the bronchodilator, but the priority is to address the acute symptoms of wheezing and shortness of breath first. Performing a complete respiratory assessment can be done after the immediate intervention of administering the bronchodilator to further evaluate the child's respiratory status.

2. Which developmental behavior should the practical nurse identify as normal for a 6-month-old infant?

• A. Rolls over completely.
• B. Creeps on all fours.
• C. Pulls self to a standing position.
• D. Assumes a sitting position independently.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Rolls over completely.' By 6 months of age, infants typically achieve the milestone of rolling over completely. This ability demonstrates increasing strength and coordination. Creeping on all fours, pulling self to a standing position, and assuming a sitting position independently are skills that are usually developed at later stages of infancy. Creeping usually occurs around 9-10 months, pulling self to a standing position around 9-12 months, and assuming a sitting position independently around 8 months. Therefore, at 6 months, rolling over completely is the most expected developmental behavior.

3. Following admission for cardiac catheterization, the nurse is providing discharge teaching to the parents of a 2-year-old toddler with tetralogy of Fallot. What instruction should the nurse give the parents if their child becomes pale, cool, and lethargic?

• A. Encourage oral electrolyte solution intake
• B. Assist the child to a recumbent position
• C. Contact their healthcare provider immediately
• D. Provide a quiet time by holding or rocking the toddler

Correct answer: C

Rationale: If a child with tetralogy of Fallot becomes pale, cool, and lethargic, these symptoms may indicate a hypoxic episode or worsening condition. It is crucial to contact the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and management to ensure the child's safety and well-being. Option A is incorrect because electrolyte solution intake is not the immediate action needed for these symptoms. Option B is incorrect as positioning alone may not address the underlying issue. Option D is incorrect as providing a quiet time is not appropriate if the child is experiencing concerning symptoms that require prompt medical attention.

4. When developing a behavior modification program for an extremely aggressive 10-year-old boy, what should the nurse do first?

• A. Identify what activities, foods, and toys the child enjoys
• B. Assess the child's previous reactions to punishment
• C. Offer the child positive feedback
• D. Involve other children on the unit in describing the token system

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The first step in developing a behavior modification program for an extremely aggressive 10-year-old boy is to identify what activities, foods, and toys the child enjoys. Understanding the child's motivations is crucial in creating an effective behavior modification plan tailored to his interests and preferences, which can help in positively reinforcing desired behaviors.

5. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left-to-right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.

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