Nursing Elites

1. During a follow-up clinical visit, a mother tells the nurse that her 5-month-old son, who had surgical correction for tetralogy of Fallot, has rapid breathing, often takes a long time to eat, and requires frequent rest periods. The infant is not crying while being held, and his growth is in the expected range. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Stimulate the infant to cry to produce cyanosis
• B. Auscultate the heart and lungs while holding the infant
• C. Evaluate the infant for failure to thrive
• D. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Auscultating the heart and lungs while the infant is held is the most appropriate intervention to assess his current condition. This action allows the nurse to gather important information regarding the cardiovascular and respiratory status of the infant, which is crucial in evaluating his post-surgical recovery and overall well-being. Option A is incorrect as stimulating the infant to cry intentionally is not necessary and could cause distress. Option C is incorrect as the infant's growth is within the expected range, indicating no signs of failure to thrive. Option D is incorrect as obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram is not the initial intervention needed in this situation; assessing the heart and lungs through auscultation is more immediate and informative.

2. A 6 year old who has asthma is demonstrating a prolonged expiratory phase and wheezing and has a 35% of personal best peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR). Based on these findings, what actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer a prescribed bronchodilator.
• B. Encourage the child to cough and deep breath.
• C. Report findings to the health care provider.
• D. Determine what triggers precipitated this attack.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator will help open the airways and improve breathing.

3. A 16-year-old adolescent is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of meningitis. The nurse notes that the client has a severe headache and photophobia. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer prescribed pain medication
• B. Place the client in a dark, quiet room
• C. Notify the healthcare provider
• D. Encourage the client to rest

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse when a client with meningitis presents with a severe headache and photophobia is to place the client in a dark, quiet room. This intervention helps reduce stimuli that can exacerbate symptoms such as headache and photophobia. Creating a calm environment can provide relief and promote comfort for the client while also supporting their recovery. Administering pain medication may be necessary but ensuring a suitable environment takes precedence. Notifying the healthcare provider is important but is not the immediate priority. Encouraging rest is beneficial, but creating an appropriate environment to alleviate symptoms is the initial essential step.

4. The nurse is assessing a 4-year-old child who is brought to the clinic for a routine checkup. The child’s parent reports that the child has been more irritable and less active over the past week. The nurse notes a petechial rash on the child’s trunk and extremities. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Ask the parent about recent exposure to contagious diseases
• B. Review the child’s immunization record
• C. Measure the child’s temperature
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the child's presentation with irritability, decreased activity, and a petechial rash raises concern for a serious condition like meningitis. Petechial rash can be indicative of meningitis or other critical illnesses. Therefore, the nurse's priority should be to notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and appropriate management. Asking about recent exposure to contagious diseases may be relevant later but is not the most urgent action. Reviewing the child's immunization record and measuring the temperature can provide valuable information but should not take precedence over the need to address the potential serious condition indicated by the petechial rash.

5. What action should the nurse implement after the infusion is complete for a 16-year-old with acute myelocytic leukemia receiving chemotherapy via an implanted medication port at the outpatient oncology clinic?

• A. Administer Zofran
• B. Obtain blood samples for RBCs, WBCs, and platelets
• C. Flush the mediport with saline and heparin solution
• D. Initiate an infusion of normal saline

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After completing the chemotherapy infusion via the implanted medication port, the nurse should flush the mediport with saline and heparin solution. This action helps prevent clot formation in the port, ensuring its patency for future use and reducing the risk of complications associated with catheter occlusion. Administering Zofran (Choice A) is used for managing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, not for post-infusion care. Obtaining blood samples for RBCs, WBCs, and platelets (Choice B) is important for monitoring the patient's blood count but is not the immediate post-infusion priority. Initiating an infusion of normal saline (Choice D) is not necessary after completing the chemotherapy infusion.

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