Nursing Elites

1. A 56-year-old female client is receiving intracavitary radiation via a radium implant. Which nurse should be assigned to care for this client?

• A. A nurse who is pregnant.
• B. A nurse with Marfan syndrome who is postmenopausal.
• C. A nurse with a cold.
• D. A nurse who is lactating.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nurse with Marfan syndrome who is postmenopausal can safely care for the client because Marfan syndrome does not affect the ability to care for this client, and postmenopausal status minimizes the risk of radiation exposure affecting reproductive health. Choice A is incorrect because pregnancy increases the risk of radiation exposure to the fetus. Choice C is incorrect because a nurse with a cold may have a compromised immune system and should not be exposed to radiation therapy. Choice D is incorrect because lactation can increase the risk of radiation exposure to breast tissue.

2. During a health assessment for a family with a history of cardiovascular disease, which family member should be prioritized for further evaluation and intervention?

• A. a 45-year-old father who smokes and has high cholesterol
• B. a 17-year-old daughter who is overweight and inactive
• C. a 50-year-old mother with a history of hypertension
• D. a 12-year-old son who has a normal weight and is active

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The 45-year-old father who smokes and has high cholesterol should be prioritized for further evaluation and intervention. He has multiple risk factors for cardiovascular disease, including smoking and high cholesterol, which significantly increase his risk. Addressing these modifiable risk factors is crucial in preventing cardiovascular events. The daughter (Choice B) and mother (Choice C) also have risk factors, but the father's combination of smoking and high cholesterol places him at higher immediate risk, demanding priority intervention. The 12-year-old son (Choice D) with a normal weight and an active lifestyle has a lower risk profile and does not require immediate intervention compared to the father.

3. A female client is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Facial weakness and difficulty speaking.
• B. Decreased deep tendon reflexes in the legs.
• C. Inability to move the eyes.
• D. Respiratory distress and cyanosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In Guillain-Barre syndrome, decreased deep tendon reflexes are a critical finding that may indicate impending respiratory failure. This is due to the involvement of the peripheral nervous system affecting the muscles, including those involved in breathing. Reporting decreased deep tendon reflexes promptly is essential to prevent respiratory compromise. Facial weakness, difficulty speaking, and inability to move the eyes are common manifestations of Guillain-Barre syndrome but are not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress and impending respiratory failure.

4. A client who is taking clonidine (Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness. Which additional assessment should the nurse make?

• A. How long has the client been taking the medication?
• B. Assess the client's dietary habits.
• C. Check for signs of infection.
• D. Evaluate the client's sleep pattern.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When a client reports drowsiness while taking clonidine, the nurse should assess how long the client has been taking the medication. Drowsiness is a common side effect that can occur in the early weeks of treatment with clonidine. By understanding the duration of medication use, the nurse can determine if the drowsiness is a temporary effect that may decrease over time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because assessing the client's dietary habits, checking for signs of infection, or evaluating the client's sleep pattern would not directly address the drowsiness associated with clonidine use.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL.
• B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours.
• C. Decreased urine output.
• D. Temperature of 100.3°F (37.9°C).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Decreased urine output in a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) requires immediate intervention because it can indicate potential complications such as fluid overload or kidney dysfunction. Monitoring urine output is crucial in assessing renal function and fluid balance in patients on TPN. A blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL is within a normal range and may not require immediate intervention. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours could be a concern but may not be as urgent as addressing decreased urine output. A temperature of 100.3°F (37.9°C) is slightly elevated but may not be directly related to TPN administration unless there are other symptoms of infection present.

Similar Questions