Nursing Elites

1. A 56-year-old female client is receiving intracavitary radiation via a radium implant. Which nurse should be assigned to care for this client?

• A. A nurse who is pregnant.
• B. A nurse with Marfan syndrome who is postmenopausal.
• C. A nurse with a cold.
• D. A nurse who is lactating.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nurse with Marfan syndrome who is postmenopausal can safely care for the client because Marfan syndrome does not affect the ability to care for this client, and postmenopausal status minimizes the risk of radiation exposure affecting reproductive health. Choice A is incorrect because pregnancy increases the risk of radiation exposure to the fetus. Choice C is incorrect because a nurse with a cold may have a compromised immune system and should not be exposed to radiation therapy. Choice D is incorrect because lactation can increase the risk of radiation exposure to breast tissue.

2. A client with asthma receives a prescription for high blood pressure during a clinic visit. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate the client to receive that is least likely to exacerbate asthma?

• A. Pindolol (Visken)
• B. Carteolol (Ocupress)
• C. Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor)
• D. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor). Metoprolol is a beta2 blocking agent that is cardioselective and less likely to cause bronchoconstriction, making it a suitable antihypertensive option for clients with asthma. Choices A, B, and D are non-selective beta-blockers which can potentially exacerbate asthma symptoms by causing bronchoconstriction.

3. The nurse is preparing a presentation on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) for a group of high school students. Which strategy is most effective for this age group?

• A. providing detailed statistical data on STI rates
• B. distributing brochures about STI prevention
• C. showing a documentary on the impact of STIs
• D. facilitating a discussion on safe sex practices

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Facilitating a discussion on safe sex practices is the most effective strategy for high school students when educating about sexually transmitted infections (STIs). This approach encourages active participation, allows students to ask questions, share experiences, and engage with the topic in a meaningful way. Providing detailed statistical data may overwhelm the students and not resonate with them effectively. Distributing brochures can be informative but might not promote the same level of interaction and understanding as a discussion. Showing a documentary is a passive method that may not engage the students actively or address their specific questions and concerns.

4. A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Continue the heparin infusion as prescribed.
• B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate.
• C. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
• D. Stop the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.

5. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the provider to explain the reason for the prescribed medication. What response is best for the provider to provide?

• A. To increase gastric motility.
• B. To decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery.
• C. To reduce secretions.
• D. To prevent nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic medication, is used preoperatively to prevent bradycardia by increasing the automaticity of the sinoatrial node during surgical anesthesia. Choice A is incorrect because atropine does not affect gastric motility. Choice C is incorrect as atropine is not primarily used to reduce secretions. Choice D is also incorrect because preventing nausea and vomiting is not the primary purpose of administering atropine in this context.

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