Nursing Elites

1. A 56-year-old female client is receiving intracavitary radiation via a radium implant. Which nurse should be assigned to care for this client?

• A. A nurse who is pregnant.
• B. A nurse with Marfan syndrome who is postmenopausal.
• C. A nurse with a cold.
• D. A nurse who is lactating.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nurse with Marfan syndrome who is postmenopausal can safely care for the client because Marfan syndrome does not affect the ability to care for this client, and postmenopausal status minimizes the risk of radiation exposure affecting reproductive health. Choice A is incorrect because pregnancy increases the risk of radiation exposure to the fetus. Choice C is incorrect because a nurse with a cold may have a compromised immune system and should not be exposed to radiation therapy. Choice D is incorrect because lactation can increase the risk of radiation exposure to breast tissue.

2. A community health nurse is planning an intervention to reduce the incidence of type 2 diabetes in the community. Which strategy is most effective?

• A. Hosting cooking classes on preparing healthy meals
• B. Offering free blood glucose screenings
• C. Distributing pamphlets on diabetes prevention
• D. Organizing a community walking program

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most effective strategy to reduce the incidence of type 2 diabetes in the community is hosting cooking classes on preparing healthy meals. This intervention provides practical skills and education that can directly impact dietary habits, leading to a decreased risk of developing type 2 diabetes. Offering free blood glucose screenings (Choice B) may help in early detection but does not address prevention. Distributing pamphlets on diabetes prevention (Choice C) provides information but lacks the interactive and hands-on approach of cooking classes. Organizing a community walking program (Choice D) promotes physical activity, which is beneficial, but dietary changes have a more significant impact on preventing type 2 diabetes.

3. Which bioterrorism agent is at high risk for use as a potential biological weapon that is readily transmitted by several portals of entry?

• A. anthrax
• B. smallpox
• C. botulism
• D. tularemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Anthrax is the correct answer. Anthrax spores can be transmitted through inhalation, ingestion, or skin contact, making it a high-risk agent for bioterrorism. Smallpox, botulism, and tularemia are also potential bioterrorism agents, but they do not have the same versatility in terms of multiple portals of entry, unlike anthrax.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing.
• C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute.
• D. Barrel-shaped chest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is an abnormal finding and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention. This rapid respiratory rate can signify inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Oxygen saturation of 88% is low but not as immediately concerning as a high respiratory rate, which indicates the body is compensating for respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles for breathing and a barrel-shaped chest are typical findings in clients with COPD but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as they are more chronic in nature and may be seen in stable COPD patients.

5. During a 2-week postoperative follow-up home visit, a female client who had gastric bypass surgery exhibits abdominal tenderness, shoulder pain, and describes feelings of malaise. Her vital signs are: T 101.8, BP 100/50, HR 104, and RR 18. Which action should the RN take?

• A. have the client transported via ambulance to the hospital
• B. recheck the client's vital signs in 30 minutes
• C. instruct the client to drive to the hospital for admission
• D. assess the client's current symptoms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client is presenting with signs of a potential postoperative complication, such as fever, low blood pressure, and tachycardia, which could indicate sepsis or another serious issue. These symptoms require immediate hospital evaluation and management. Option B of rechecking vital signs in 30 minutes could delay crucial intervention in a potentially life-threatening situation. Option C is unsafe as the client should not drive herself due to her condition. Option D is vague and does not address the urgency of the situation.

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