Nursing Elites

1. A 4-month-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother because she has had a cold for 2 or 3 days and woke up this morning with a hacking cough and difficulty breathing. Which additional assessment finding should alert the nurse that the child is in acute respiratory distress?

• A. Bilateral bronchial breath sounds.
• B. Diaphragmatic breathing.
• C. A resting respiratory rate of 35 breaths per minute.
• D. Flaring of the nares.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Flaring of the nares is a classic sign of acute respiratory distress in infants. It indicates increased work of breathing and is a visible cue that the child is struggling to breathe. This finding should alert healthcare providers to the severity of the respiratory distress and the need for prompt intervention to support the child's breathing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Bilateral bronchial breath sounds are associated with conditions like pneumonia, but they do not specifically indicate acute respiratory distress. Diaphragmatic breathing is a normal breathing pattern and not a sign of distress. A resting respiratory rate of 35 breaths per minute is within the expected range for a 4-month-old infant and does not necessarily indicate acute respiratory distress.

2. Which nursing intervention is most important to assist in detecting hypopituitarism and hyperpituitarism in children?

• A. Carefully recording the height and weight of children to detect inappropriate growth.
• B. Performing head circumference measurements on infants under one year of age.
• C. Assessing for behavioral problems at home and school by interviewing the parents.
• D. Noting tracked weight gain without a gain in height on a growth chart.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Recording the height and weight of children is crucial in detecting growth abnormalities like hypopituitarism and hyperpituitarism. Inappropriate growth patterns, such as disproportionate weight gain or stunted height, can be indicative of these conditions. Regular monitoring of height and weight is a fundamental nursing intervention that can aid in the early identification and management of pituitary-related disorders in children.

3. An 8-year-old male client with nephrotic syndrome is receiving salt-poor human albumin IV. Which findings indicate to the nurse that the child is manifesting a therapeutic response?

• A. Decreased urinary output
• B. Decreased periorbital edema
• C. Increased periods of rest
• D. Weight gain of 0.5 kg/day

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome treatment, decreased periorbital edema is a positive therapeutic response as it indicates a reduction in fluid retention. Periorbital edema is a common symptom of nephrotic syndrome due to fluid accumulation, so a decrease in this swelling signifies an improvement in the condition.

4. The nurse is planning for a 5-month-old with gastroesophageal reflux disease whose weight has decreased by 3 ounces since the last clinic visit one month ago. To increase caloric intake and decrease vomiting, what instructions should the nurse provide this mother?

• A. Give small amounts of baby food with each feeding.
• B. Thicken formula with cereal for each feeding.
• C. Dilute the child's formula with equal parts of water.
• D. Offer 10% dextrose in water between most feedings.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thickening formula with cereal is a recommended intervention for infants with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) to help reduce vomiting and increase caloric intake. This modification can help the infant keep the food down better, reducing reflux symptoms while providing adequate nutrition. Giving small amounts of baby food with each feeding (Choice A) is not recommended for a 5-month-old with GERD as it may exacerbate symptoms. Diluting the child's formula with equal parts of water (Choice C) can lead to inadequate nutrition and is not advisable. Offering 10% dextrose in water between most feedings (Choice D) is not appropriate for managing GERD in infants and does not address the underlying issue of reflux.

5. When should the surgical correction of hypospadias in a newborn infant typically be done?

• A. Repair should be done by one month to prevent bladder infection.
• B. To form a proper urethra repair, it should be done after sexual maturity.
• C. Repairs typically should be done before the child is potty trained.
• D. Delaying the repair until school age reduces castration fears.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Surgical repairs for hypospadias are typically recommended to be performed before the child is potty trained. This timing helps in avoiding complications, ensures better outcomes, and makes the surgical process smoother. Early correction also minimizes the psychological impact on the child regarding genital differences and can improve long-term psychological well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because repairing hypospadias at one month to prevent bladder infection, after sexual maturity to form a proper urethra, or delaying the repair until school age to reduce castration fears are not the standard recommendations. The optimal timing for surgical correction is before the child is potty trained to achieve the best results and psychological outcomes.

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