a 4 month old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother because she has had a cold for 2 or 3 days and woke up this morning with a hacking cough and
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Pediatric Practice Exam

1. A 4-month-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother because she has had a cold for 2 or 3 days and woke up this morning with a hacking cough and difficulty breathing. Which additional assessment finding should alert the nurse that the child is in acute respiratory distress?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Flaring of the nares is a classic sign of acute respiratory distress in infants. It indicates increased work of breathing and is a visible cue that the child is struggling to breathe. This finding should alert healthcare providers to the severity of the respiratory distress and the need for prompt intervention to support the child's breathing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Bilateral bronchial breath sounds are associated with conditions like pneumonia, but they do not specifically indicate acute respiratory distress. Diaphragmatic breathing is a normal breathing pattern and not a sign of distress. A resting respiratory rate of 35 breaths per minute is within the expected range for a 4-month-old infant and does not necessarily indicate acute respiratory distress.

2. A mother brings her 2-year-old son to the clinic because he has been crying and pulling on his earlobe for the past 12 hours. The child’s oral temperature is 101.2°F. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child with ear pain and fever, asking about a runny nose is important to assess if the ear pain is associated with a respiratory infection, such as otitis media. This information can guide further assessment and treatment decisions. Choice B is incorrect because cleansing purulent exudate should be done by a healthcare provider, not the nurse. Choice C is incorrect as topical antibiotics should only be applied under healthcare provider's orders. Choice D is not the priority at this moment, as the immediate concern is assessing the association between the ear pain and a possible respiratory infection.

3. The parents of a 3-year-old boy who has Duchenne muscular dystrophy ask, 'How can our son have this disease? We are wondering if we should have any more children.' What information should the nurse provide to parents?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder that primarily affects males. It is crucial for the nurse to explain to the parents that this condition follows an inheritance pattern where the gene mutation responsible for the disorder is located on the X chromosome. Males have only one X chromosome, so if they inherit the mutated gene, they will develop the disease. Females, on the other hand, have two X chromosomes, providing a backup copy that can compensate for the mutation. Understanding this inheritance pattern is essential for family planning decisions, as the risk of passing on the disorder to future children can be explained based on this genetic inheritance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the genetic basis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy or its inheritance pattern, which is crucial information for the parents in this scenario.

4. Which assessment finding should the healthcare provider identify as most concerning in a child with acute glomerulonephritis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child with acute glomerulonephritis, hypertension is the most concerning assessment finding as it can indicate worsening renal function. Hypertension is a common complication of glomerulonephritis and can lead to further kidney damage if not managed promptly. Monitoring and controlling blood pressure is crucial in these cases to prevent complications and preserve renal function. Gross hematuria, proteinuria, and periorbital edema are also common findings in acute glomerulonephritis but hypertension poses a higher risk for renal damage if left uncontrolled.

5. A 2-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario. The nurse obtained an apical heart rate of 128 bpm, which is within the expected range for a 2-year-old child. Therefore, there is no immediate concern to withhold the scheduled dose of digoxin. Determining the pulse deficit is not necessary as the heart rate is appropriate. Calculating the safe dose range is not needed as the current dose is within the therapeutic range. Reviewing the serum digoxin level may be indicated later for monitoring but is not urgent based on the heart rate assessment. Administering the scheduled dose of digoxin is the correct action at this time.

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