Nursing Elites

1. A 4-month-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother because she has had a cold for 2 or 3 days and woke up this morning with a hacking cough and difficulty breathing. Which additional assessment finding should alert the nurse that the child is in acute respiratory distress?

• A. Bilateral bronchial breath sounds.
• B. Diaphragmatic breathing.
• C. A resting respiratory rate of 35 breaths per minute.
• D. Flaring of the nares.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Flaring of the nares is a classic sign of acute respiratory distress in infants. It indicates increased work of breathing and is a visible cue that the child is struggling to breathe. This finding should alert healthcare providers to the severity of the respiratory distress and the need for prompt intervention to support the child's breathing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Bilateral bronchial breath sounds are associated with conditions like pneumonia, but they do not specifically indicate acute respiratory distress. Diaphragmatic breathing is a normal breathing pattern and not a sign of distress. A resting respiratory rate of 35 breaths per minute is within the expected range for a 4-month-old infant and does not necessarily indicate acute respiratory distress.

2. The nurse is caring for a 2-year-old child who was admitted for dehydration due to gastroenteritis. The child is now receiving IV fluids and appears more alert. What is the best indicator that the child’s condition is improving?

• A. The child is more alert and playful
• B. The child’s urine output has increased
• C. The child’s vital signs are stable
• D. The child is tolerating small amounts of oral fluids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased urine output is a reliable indicator that hydration status is improving. While alertness and playfulness are positive signs, increased urine output directly reflects improved hydration. Stable vital signs are important but may not directly indicate hydration status. Tolerating small amounts of oral fluids is a good sign but may not be as direct an indicator as increased urine output.

3. The parents of a 4-year-old child who has just been diagnosed with celiac disease are being educated by a healthcare provider. Which statement by the parents indicates a correct understanding of the condition?

• A. We can give our child small amounts of gluten occasionally
• B. We need to avoid giving our child foods containing wheat, barley, and rye
• C. We should limit our child’s intake of dairy products
• D. Our child will need to take gluten-free supplements

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because for individuals with celiac disease, a strict gluten-free diet is essential for managing the condition. Foods containing wheat, barley, and rye must be completely avoided to prevent adverse reactions and damage to the intestines. This dietary restriction is crucial to ensure the child's health and well-being in managing celiac disease effectively. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because giving small amounts of gluten occasionally, limiting dairy products, or taking gluten-free supplements are not sufficient measures to manage celiac disease. Complete avoidance of gluten-containing foods is necessary to prevent complications.

4. When developing a behavior modification program for an extremely aggressive 10-year-old boy, what should the nurse do first?

• A. Determine what activities, foods, and toys the child enjoys
• B. Evaluate the child’s previous reactions to punishment
• C. Provide the child with positive feedback
• D. Encourage other children on the unit to describe the token system

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The first step in developing a behavior modification program for an aggressive child is to determine what activities, foods, and toys the child enjoys. Understanding the child's preferences allows the nurse to personalize the program, making it more engaging and effective. This approach increases the chances of success in modifying the aggressive behavior. Evaluating previous reactions to punishment (Choice B) may be important but comes later in the process. Providing positive feedback (Choice C) is beneficial but should come after tailoring the program. Encouraging other children to describe the token system (Choice D) is not the initial step; the focus should be on individualizing the program for the specific child first.

5. The mother of a one-month-old calls the clinic to report that the back of her infant's head is flat. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Turn the infant on the left side braced against the crib when sleeping.
• B. Prop the infant in a sitting position with a cushion when not sleeping.
• C. Place a small pillow under the infant's head while lying on the back.
• D. Position the infant on the stomach occasionally when awake and active.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Positioning the infant on the stomach occasionally when awake and active can help prevent flat spots on the head. This position allows for more natural movement and prevents prolonged pressure on one area of the head, reducing the risk of developing a flat spot. Turning the infant on the left side braced against the crib when sleeping (choice A) is not recommended as it does not address the issue of flat spots. Propping the infant in a sitting position with a cushion when not sleeping (choice B) may increase the risk of falls and is not suitable for a one-month-old. Placing a small pillow under the infant's head while lying on the back (choice C) should be avoided due to the risk of suffocation and sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).

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