HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A 17-year-old adolescent reports flu-like symptoms and is brought to the emergency room. What intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Assess the client's temperature.
- B. Place a mask on the client.
- C. Obtain a chest X-ray per protocol.
- D. Determine the client's blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to place a mask on the client. This intervention is crucial in preventing the spread of infections like the flu, especially in a healthcare setting where the risk of transmission is high. Assessing the client's temperature (Choice A) can be important but is not the priority in this situation. Obtaining a chest X-ray (Choice C) and determining the client's blood pressure (Choice D) are not the immediate interventions needed for a 17-year-old reporting flu-like symptoms.
2. The nurse assesses a 72-year-old client who was admitted for right-sided congestive heart failure. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate finding?
- A. Decreased urinary output
- B. Jugular vein distention
- C. Pleural effusion
- D. Bibasilar crackles
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct! In right-sided congestive heart failure, jugular vein distention is a common finding due to the backup of blood in the systemic circulation. This results in increased venous pressure, leading to jugular vein distention. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased urinary output, pleural effusion, and bibasilar crackles are more commonly associated with other conditions such as kidney dysfunction, lung issues, and pulmonary edema.
3. A male client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer prescribed anticoagulant.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Auscultate lung sounds.
- D. Prepare for chest physiotherapy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering an anticoagulant is the nurse's priority action in this situation. Given the client's history of DVT and the presentation of new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough, there is a concern for a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening complication of DVT. Administering an anticoagulant promptly is crucial to prevent further clot formation and to manage the existing clot, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism. While auscultating lung sounds and preparing for chest physiotherapy are important actions in respiratory assessment and management, the priority in this case is to address the potential complication of a pulmonary embolism by administering the anticoagulant. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating the immediate intervention of anticoagulant therapy.
4. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What teaching should the nurse provide to the client?
- A. Avoid leafy green vegetables while taking warfarin.
- B. Report any unusual bruising or bleeding.
- C. Take warfarin at the same time every day.
- D. Avoid alcohol consumption while on warfarin.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid alcohol consumption while on warfarin.' Alcohol can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin, so it should be avoided. Choice A is incorrect as leafy green vegetables contain vitamin K, which can interfere with the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Choice B is important but not directly related to alcohol consumption. Choice C is a general instruction for medication adherence but not specifically related to the interaction with alcohol.
5. A postoperative client with a history of diabetes mellitus is showing signs of hyperglycemia. What should the nurse assess first?
- A. Assess for signs of infection.
- B. Monitor the client’s fluid intake and output.
- C. Check the client’s capillary blood glucose level.
- D. Assess the client’s serum potassium level.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client’s capillary blood glucose level first. In a postoperative client with a history of diabetes mellitus showing signs of hyperglycemia, assessing blood glucose levels is crucial to confirm hyperglycemia and initiate appropriate interventions. While signs of infection are important to assess due to the client's postoperative status and diabetic history, checking the blood glucose level takes precedence to address the immediate concern of hyperglycemia. Monitoring fluid intake and output is essential but not the priority in this scenario. Assessing the client’s serum potassium level is important for overall assessment but not the initial step when hyperglycemia is suspected.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access