HESI RN
HESI Pediatric Practice Exam
1. In a 12-year-old child with a history of epilepsy brought to the emergency department after experiencing a 10-minute seizure, what is the nurse’s priority intervention?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer antiepileptic medication as prescribed
- C. Monitor the child’s vital signs
- D. Check the child’s blood glucose level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering antiepileptic medication as prescribed is the priority intervention in a child with a history of epilepsy who experienced a prolonged seizure. This action is crucial to stop the seizure and prevent further complications associated with prolonged seizure activity. Administering oxygen may be necessary, but the priority is to stop the seizure. Monitoring vital signs and checking blood glucose levels are important but secondary to administering antiepileptic medication to manage the seizure.
2. Which nursing intervention is most important to assist in detecting hypopituitarism and hyperpituitarism in children?
- A. Carefully recording the height and weight of children to detect inappropriate growth.
- B. Performing head circumference measurements on infants under one year of age.
- C. Assessing for behavioral problems at home and school by interviewing the parents.
- D. Noting tracked weight gain without a gain in height on a growth chart.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Recording the height and weight of children is crucial in detecting growth abnormalities like hypopituitarism and hyperpituitarism. Inappropriate growth patterns, such as disproportionate weight gain or stunted height, can be indicative of these conditions. Regular monitoring of height and weight is a fundamental nursing intervention that can aid in the early identification and management of pituitary-related disorders in children.
3. The child is 3 years old and is 2 hours postop from a cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery. Which assessment finding indicates arterial obstruction?
- A. Blood pressure is decreasing, and the pulse is rapid and irregular.
- B. The right foot feels cool to the touch and appears pale and blanched.
- C. The pulse distal to the femoral artery is weaker in the left foot than the right foot.
- D. The pressure dressing at the right femoral area is damp and oozing blood.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A cool, pale, and blanched foot is indicative of arterial obstruction, leading to poor blood flow. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as tissue damage or necrosis. Monitoring for signs of arterial compromise, such as color changes, temperature, and capillary refill, is crucial in detecting and managing vascular complications post-cardiac catheterization. Choices A, C, and D do not directly indicate arterial obstruction. While a decreasing blood pressure and rapid, irregular pulse may suggest compromise, these findings are more nonspecific. A weaker pulse distal to the femoral artery indicates reduced perfusion but not necessarily arterial obstruction. Finally, a damp, oozing pressure dressing suggests a dressing issue rather than arterial obstruction.
4. The parents of a 3-year-old boy who has Duchenne muscular dystrophy ask, 'How can our son have this disease? We are wondering if we should have any more children.' What information should the nurse provide to parents?
- A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family
- B. The striated muscle groups of males can be impacted by a lack of the protein dystrophin in their mothers
- C. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated so muscle damage was incurred
- D. Birth trauma with a breech vaginal birth causes damage to the spinal cord, thus weakening the muscles
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder that primarily affects males. It is crucial for the nurse to explain to the parents that this condition follows an inheritance pattern where the gene mutation responsible for the disorder is located on the X chromosome. Males have only one X chromosome, so if they inherit the mutated gene, they will develop the disease. Females, on the other hand, have two X chromosomes, providing a backup copy that can compensate for the mutation. Understanding this inheritance pattern is essential for family planning decisions, as the risk of passing on the disorder to future children can be explained based on this genetic inheritance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the genetic basis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy or its inheritance pattern, which is crucial information for the parents in this scenario.
5. An adolescent's mother calls the primary HCP's office to inquire about the results of her daughter's serum test that was drawn last week. Since it is the teenager's 18th birthday, how should the nurse respond to this mother's inquiry?
- A. Ask when the adolescent was last seen at the clinic
- B. Tell the mother to have the teenager call the clinic
- C. Provide the mother with the findings
- D. Explain that the information cannot be released without the 18-year-old's permission
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is to explain to the mother that the information cannot be released without the 18-year-old's permission. When an individual turns 18, they are legally considered an adult, and privacy laws mandate that their consent is required before sharing their medical information with others. It is crucial to respect the adolescent's autonomy and privacy rights. Choices A and C are incorrect because they involve disclosing the information without the individual's consent. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the legal requirement for the adolescent's permission before sharing medical information.
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