HESI RN
Reproductive System Exam Quizlet
1. At 6-8 weeks of pregnancy, the breast changes include:
- A. Colostrum can be expressed.
- B. Breasts become tender.
- C. Montgomery's tubercles are prominent.
- D. Nipples become prominent and mobile.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: At 6-8 weeks of pregnancy, one of the changes in the breast includes the prominence of Montgomery's tubercles. These sebaceous glands around the nipple become more noticeable at this stage. Colostrum production usually occurs later in pregnancy, typically closer to the third trimester. While breast tenderness is a common symptom of early pregnancy, it is not specific to the 6-8 week timeframe. Nipples becoming more prominent and mobile may happen later in pregnancy as the body prepares for breastfeeding, but it is not a typical change seen specifically at 6-8 weeks.
2. The nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control. Which intervention is most important to include in this client’s plan of care?
- A. Monitor serum calcium levels
- B. Obtain a baseline electrocardiogram
- C. Implement seizure precautions
- D. Encourage a low-protein diet
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to implement seizure precautions. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication used for seizure control. Seizure precautions are crucial for clients taking this medication to ensure their safety during a seizure episode. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A) is not directly related to phenytoin therapy. Obtaining a baseline electrocardiogram (Choice B) is important for some medications but not the priority for a client on phenytoin. Encouraging a low-protein diet (Choice D) is not specifically indicated for clients on phenytoin and is not the most important intervention.
3. A teenager who has lost 20 pounds in the last three months is admitted to the hospital with hypotension and tachycardia. The client reports irregular menses and hair loss. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client’s plan of care?
- A. Initiate caloric and nutritional therapy.
- B. Implement behavioral modification therapy.
- C. Evaluate the client for low self-esteem.
- D. Record daily weights and graph trends.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client presents with evidence of anorexia nervosa resulting from self-starvation, which is a life-threatening condition. Providing nutrition and calories is the priority intervention so that the risk of electrolyte imbalance and severe dehydration can be reduced. Behavioral modification therapy (Choice B) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the priority in this acute situation. Evaluating for low self-esteem (Choice C) may be part of the nursing assessment but does not address the immediate life-threatening issues. Recording daily weights and graphing trends (Choice D) is important for monitoring progress but does not address the critical need for nutritional therapy in this case.
4. After an endotracheal tube is placed in a client who experienced sudden onset of respiratory distress, what should the nurse do?
- A. Secure the tube in place with tape
- B. Order a chest x-ray for the client
- C. Document the depth of tube insertion
- D. Auscultate both lungs for breath sounds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After endotracheal tube insertion, the nurse should auscultate both lungs for the presence of breath sounds. This step helps confirm proper tube placement and adequate ventilation. Auscultation of breath sounds is crucial to ensure that the tube is correctly positioned in the trachea and not in the esophagus. While securing the tube with tape is important, it is not the immediate priority after insertion. Ordering a chest x-ray may be necessary but is not the first action to take immediately post-intubation. Documenting the depth of tube insertion is important but ensuring proper ventilation through auscultation takes precedence.
5. In a hospitalized child receiving IV fluids for dehydration, what is the best indicator that the child’s dehydration is improving?
- A. The child’s urine output increases
- B. The child’s skin turgor is normal
- C. The child’s weight increases
- D. The child’s vital signs are stable
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An increase in urine output is a reliable indicator of improving dehydration in a child. It signifies that the kidneys are functioning better, helping to restore fluid balance in the body. Monitoring urine output is crucial in assessing hydration status and response to treatment. Choices B, C, and D are not the best indicators of improving dehydration. Normal skin turgor is helpful but may not change immediately with improving hydration. Weight increase may reflect retained fluids rather than improved hydration status. Stable vital signs are important but may not always indicate improving dehydration.