HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6
1. A client with DM visits the health care clinic. The client's diabetes has been well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?
- A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
- B. Prednisone (Deltasone)
- C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
- D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause hyperglycemia by increasing glucose production in the liver. Atenolol (Choice A) is a beta-blocker that typically does not affect blood glucose levels significantly. Phenelzine (Choice C) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used for depression and does not directly impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Choice D) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not contribute to hyperglycemia.
2. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a highly elevated glycosylated hemoglobin (Hb) test result. In discussing the result with the client, nurse Sharmaine would be most accurate in stating:
- A. The test needs to be repeated following a 12-hour fast.
- B. It appears you aren't following the prescribed diabetic diet.
- C. It tells us about your sugar control for the last 3 months.
- D. Your insulin regimen needs to be significantly altered.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 3 months. This test is used to assess long-term blood sugar control in individuals with diabetes. Choice A is incorrect because fasting is not required for an HbA1c test. Choice B is judgmental and not supported by the information provided. Choice D is not the most accurate statement to make based on the HbA1c result; adjusting insulin would depend on a more comprehensive assessment of the client's overall diabetes management.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with myxedema coma. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Administer intravenous fluids
- B. Provide a warming blanket
- C. Administer levothyroxine intravenously
- D. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In myxedema coma, the priority intervention is to administer levothyroxine intravenously. Myxedema coma is a severe form of hypothyroidism, and intravenous levothyroxine is crucial to rapidly replace deficient thyroid hormones. Administering intravenous fluids (choice A) may be necessary, but levothyroxine takes precedence. Providing a warming blanket (choice B) can help maintain the client's body temperature, but it does not address the underlying thyroid hormone deficiency. Placing the client in Trendelenburg position (choice D) is not indicated and can potentially worsen the client's condition.
4. What is the nurse manager’s role in improving the quality of care on the unit?
- A. The nurse manager is responsible for setting goals and priorities for the unit and ensuring that staff members are working towards achieving those goals.
- B. The nurse manager is responsible for monitoring patient outcomes and implementing changes to improve the quality of care on the unit.
- C. The nurse manager is responsible for ensuring that staff members follow established procedures and protocols to maintain the quality of care on the unit.
- D. The nurse manager is responsible for providing feedback and coaching to staff members to help them improve their performance and achieve the unit’s quality goals.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse manager plays a crucial role in improving the quality of care on the unit by setting goals and priorities for the unit and ensuring that staff members are working towards achieving those goals. This involves strategic planning, coordination, and leadership to guide the team in delivering high-quality patient care. Option B is incorrect as while monitoring patient outcomes is important, it is not the primary role of the nurse manager in improving care quality. Option C is incorrect because while ensuring staff adherence to procedures is important, it is a part of maintaining quality rather than actively improving it. Option D is incorrect as providing feedback and coaching, though essential, is not the primary role of the nurse manager in setting goals and priorities for quality improvement.
5. In a 29-year-old female client who is being successfully treated for Cushing's syndrome, nurse Lyzette would expect a decline in:
- A. Serum glucose level.
- B. Hair loss.
- C. Bone mineralization.
- D. Menstrual flow.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum glucose level. In Cushing's syndrome, there is excess cortisol production which can lead to hyperglycemia. Successful treatment of Cushing's syndrome aims to normalize cortisol levels, resulting in a decline in serum glucose levels. Choice B, hair loss, is not specifically associated with Cushing's syndrome or its treatment. Choice C, bone mineralization, is often compromised in Cushing's syndrome due to the effects of excess cortisol on bones; however, successful treatment would aim to improve bone health rather than decline it. Choice D, menstrual flow, is not directly linked to Cushing's syndrome or its treatment, so a decline in menstrual flow would not be an expected outcome of successful treatment.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access