Nursing Elites

1. A client with DM visits the health care clinic. The client's diabetes has been well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• B. Prednisone (Deltasone)
• C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause hyperglycemia by increasing glucose production in the liver. Atenolol (Choice A) is a beta-blocker that typically does not affect blood glucose levels significantly. Phenelzine (Choice C) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used for depression and does not directly impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Choice D) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not contribute to hyperglycemia.

2. Nurse Wayne is aware that a positive Chvostek's sign indicates:

• A. Hypocalcemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypermagnesemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign indicates hypocalcemia. This sign is elicited by tapping the facial nerve anterior to the ear, resulting in facial muscle twitching due to increased neuromuscular irritability from low calcium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is characterized by low sodium levels, but it does not present with Chvostek's sign. Hypokalemia (Choice C) is low potassium levels, and hypermagnesemia (Choice D) is high magnesium levels, neither of which are associated with Chvostek's sign.

3. Capillary glucose monitoring is being performed every 4 hours for a female client diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin is administered using a scale of regular insulin according to glucose results. At 2 p.m., the client has a capillary glucose level of 250 mg/dl for which she receives 8 U of regular insulin. Nurse Vince should expect the dose's:

• A. Onset to be at 2 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.
• B. Onset to be at 2:15 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.
• C. Onset to be at 2:30 p.m. and its peak to be at 4 p.m.
• D. Onset to be at 4 p.m. and its peak to be at 6 p.m.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Regular insulin typically has an onset of action within 30 minutes and peaks 2-4 hours after administration. Given that the insulin was administered at 2 p.m., the onset of action can be expected around 2:30 p.m., and the peak effect would occur between 4-6 p.m. Choice A is incorrect as the onset and peak are too close together for regular insulin. Choice B is incorrect because the onset time is too soon after administration. Choice D is incorrect as the onset time is too delayed for regular insulin.

4. The client with type 2 DM is receiving dietary instructions from the nurse regarding the prescribed diabetic diet. The nurse determines that the client understands the instructions if the client states that:

• A. I need to skip meals if my blood glucose level is elevated.
• B. I need to eat a small meal or snack every 2 to 3 hours.
• C. I need to avoid using concentrated sweets in my diet.
• D. I need to eat a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'I need to avoid using concentrated sweets in my diet.' Clients with type 2 diabetes should avoid concentrated sweets as they can cause rapid spikes in blood glucose levels, which can be detrimental to their health. Option A is incorrect because skipping meals can lead to fluctuations in blood glucose levels. Option B is incorrect as it does not address the specific issue of avoiding concentrated sweets. Option D is incorrect because a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet is not typically recommended as the primary approach for managing type 2 diabetes.

5. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus asks the nurse about taking an oral antidiabetic agent. Nurse Jack explains that these medications are only effective if the client:

• A. Prefers to take insulin orally.
• B. Has type 2 diabetes.
• C. Has type 1 diabetes.
• D. Is pregnant and has type 2 diabetes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oral antidiabetic agents are specifically designed for type 2 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes requires insulin therapy as the primary treatment due to the absence of endogenous insulin production. Therefore, these medications are not effective for individuals with type 1 diabetes like the male client in this scenario. Choice A is incorrect as oral antidiabetic agents are not about preference but rather about treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as being pregnant does not impact the effectiveness of oral antidiabetic agents; they are primarily indicated for type 2 diabetes.

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