Nursing Elites

1. Which of these methods can be used for the transfer of zygote or early embryo into the fallopian tube?

• A. GIFT
• B. IUT
• C. ZIFT
• D. ICSI

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, ZIFT (Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer). ZIFT involves transferring a zygote or early embryo into the fallopian tube. GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer - A) involves transferring unfertilized eggs and sperm into the fallopian tube for fertilization to occur inside the woman's body, not a zygote or early embryo. IUT (Intrauterine Transfer - B) is not specifically for transferring the zygote or early embryo into the fallopian tube, but rather into the uterus. ICSI (Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection - D) is a technique where a single sperm is injected directly into an egg, not related to transferring embryos into the fallopian tube.

2. In 1989, the national population policy was formally launched targeting:

• A. Reducing population growth
• B. Making family planning services available
• C. Making services accessible and affordable to all eligible users
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the national population policy launched in 1989 aimed at reducing population growth by making family planning services available, accessible, and affordable to all eligible users. Choice A is incorrect as it does not encompass the full scope of the policy objectives. Choice B is also incomplete as it focuses solely on availability without considering accessibility and affordability. Choice C is partially correct but lacks the comprehensive approach of the national population policy.

3. A client 12 weeks pregnant comes to the emergency department with abdominal cramping and moderate vaginal bleeding. Speculum examination reveals 2 to 3 cm cervical dilation. The nurse would document these findings as which of the following?

• A. Threatened abortion
• B. Inevitable abortion
• C. Complete abortion
• D. Missed abortion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse would document these findings as an inevitable abortion. Inevitable abortion is characterized by cervical dilation with or without rupture of membranes and is associated with moderate to heavy vaginal bleeding. 'Threatened abortion' (choice A) refers to vaginal bleeding with a closed cervical os and no tissue passage. 'Complete abortion' (choice C) involves the passage of all products of conception. 'Missed abortion' (choice D) is the retention of a failed intrauterine pregnancy for an extended period without symptoms.

4. At 34-40 weeks of pregnancy, the breast changes include:

• A. Nipples become prominent and mobile.
• B. Colostrum can be expressed.
• C. Breasts become tender.
• D. Montgomery's tubercles are prominent.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the 34-40 weeks of pregnancy, Montgomery's tubercles become prominent. These are sebaceous glands on the areola, not the nipples. Choice A is incorrect as it describes the changes in nipples, not Montgomery's tubercles. Choice B is incorrect as colostrum production usually starts around the 16th week. Choice C is incorrect as breast tenderness is more common in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes.

5. What is the triangular space lying between the vaginal and rectal canals?

• A. Pelvic floor
• B. Perineum
• C. Vestibule
• D. Perineal body

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Perineum. The perineum is the triangular space located between the vaginal and rectal canals. It is a region containing various muscles, nerves, and blood vessels that support the pelvic floor. Choice A, Pelvic floor, refers to the structure supporting the organs in the pelvic cavity, not the space between the vaginal and rectal canals. Choice C, Vestibule, is the space within the labia minora containing the openings of the urethra and vagina, not the area between the vaginal and rectal canals. Choice D, Perineal body, is a fibromuscular mass in the perineum area but not the space between the vaginal and rectal canals.

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