HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam
1. Which of the following structures is responsible for the production of sperm?
- A. Epididymis
- B. Seminal vesicles
- C. Testes
- D. Prostate gland
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The testes are the male reproductive organs responsible for the production of sperm through a process called spermatogenesis. The epididymis is a structure where sperm mature and are stored temporarily. Seminal vesicles produce a significant portion of the fluid that ultimately becomes semen, but they do not produce sperm. The prostate gland contributes additional fluid to semen but does not produce sperm. Therefore, the correct answer is the testes.
2. A 68-year-old client on day 2 after hip surgery has no cardiac history but reports having chest heaviness. The first nursing action should be to:
- A. Inquire about the onset, duration, severity, and precipitating factors of the heaviness.
- B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- C. Offer pain medication for the chest heaviness.
- D. Inform the physician of the chest heaviness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first nursing action when a client reports chest heaviness post-hip surgery is to gather more information through assessment. Inquiring about the onset, duration, severity, and precipitating factors of the heaviness is crucial to determine the cause. This approach helps the nurse to gather essential data to make an informed decision regarding the client's care. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be indicated based on assessment findings, but it is crucial to assess first. Offering pain medication (Choice C) without further assessment is premature and may mask symptoms. Informing the physician (Choice D) should be done after a thorough assessment to provide comprehensive information for appropriate medical decision-making.
3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the therapy is effective?
- A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 1.0.
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
- C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 60 seconds.
- D. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.5 indicates that warfarin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with atrial fibrillation. A lower INR (such as 1.0) would suggest subtherapeutic levels, risking blood clots. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy.
4. What is the leading cause of maternal mortality?
- A. Pre-eclampsia
- B. Haemorrhage
- C. Sepsis
- D. Obstructed labour
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Haemorrhage. Haemorrhage is a leading cause of maternal mortality due to excessive bleeding during childbirth. While conditions like pre-eclampsia, sepsis, and obstructed labor can also be serious complications during pregnancy and childbirth, they are not the primary cause of maternal mortality worldwide.
5. A histamine (H2)-receptor antagonist will be prescribed for a client. The nurse understands that which medications are H2-receptor antagonists? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Nizatidine (Axid)
- B. Ranitidine (Zantac)
- C. Famotidine (Pepcid)
- D. Ibuprofen (Motrin)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: H2-receptor antagonists like Nizatidine, Ranitidine, and Famotidine are used to suppress gastric acid secretion, relieve heartburn symptoms, and prevent complications of peptic ulcer disease. Ibuprofen, on the other hand, is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) commonly used for pain relief and inflammation, but it is not an H2-receptor antagonist. It is essential to differentiate between these medication classes to ensure appropriate treatment for gastrointestinal conditions.