Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor in a client with Cushing's syndrome?

• A. Blood glucose levels
• B. Serum calcium levels
• C. Serum potassium levels
• D. Serum sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood glucose levels. In Cushing's syndrome, there is excess cortisol in the body which leads to increased blood glucose levels due to its effect on glucose metabolism. Elevated blood glucose levels are a common finding in individuals with Cushing's syndrome. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial as it helps in assessing and managing hyperglycemia in these patients. Choice B, serum calcium levels, is not typically a priority in monitoring for Cushing's syndrome. While abnormalities in calcium levels can occur in some endocrine disorders, hypercalcemia is not a hallmark of Cushing's syndrome. Choice C, serum potassium levels, and Choice D, serum sodium levels, are not directly associated with Cushing's syndrome. While electrolyte imbalances can occur in various conditions, they are not specifically linked to Cushing's syndrome as blood glucose levels are.

2. Capillary glucose monitoring is being performed every 4 hours for a female client diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin is administered using a scale of regular insulin according to glucose results. At 2 p.m., the client has a capillary glucose level of 250 mg/dl for which she receives 8 U of regular insulin. Nurse Vince should expect the dose's:

• A. Onset to be at 2 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.
• B. Onset to be at 2:15 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.
• C. Onset to be at 2:30 p.m. and its peak to be at 4 p.m.
• D. Onset to be at 4 p.m. and its peak to be at 6 p.m.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Regular insulin typically has an onset of action within 30 minutes and peaks 2-4 hours after administration. Given that the insulin was administered at 2 p.m., the onset of action can be expected around 2:30 p.m., and the peak effect would occur between 4-6 p.m. Choice A is incorrect as the onset and peak are too close together for regular insulin. Choice B is incorrect because the onset time is too soon after administration. Choice D is incorrect as the onset time is too delayed for regular insulin.

3. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus presents with nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. The nurse suspects diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following lab findings would confirm this diagnosis?

• A. Serum glucose of 180 mg/dL
• B. Serum bicarbonate of 22 mEq/L
• C. Blood pH of 7.25
• D. Urine specific gravity of 1.020

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A blood pH of 7.25 is a critical finding in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) as it indicates metabolic acidosis, which is a hallmark of this condition. In DKA, there is an accumulation of ketones in the blood, leading to increased acidity. The serum glucose level is typically elevated in DKA, often exceeding 250 mg/dL. A serum bicarbonate level less than 18 mEq/L is usually seen in DKA due to the metabolic acidosis. Urine specific gravity is not a specific indicator for DKA and may vary depending on the individual's hydration status. Therefore, the correct lab finding that confirms DKA in this scenario is a blood pH of 7.25.

4. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

5. A client with hypoparathyroidism is at risk for which of the following complications?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypoparathyroidism is characterized by decreased levels of parathyroid hormone, leading to reduced calcium levels in the blood, which results in hypocalcemia. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hypoparathyroidism does not typically lead to hypercalcemia, hyperkalemia, or hypernatremia. Hypercalcemia is more commonly associated with hyperparathyroidism, where there is excess secretion of parathyroid hormone.

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