Nursing Elites

1. What is the nurse's responsibility when dealing with an impaired colleague?

• A. The nurse should report the colleague to a supervisor and follow the institution's policy for addressing impaired practice.
• B. The nurse should confront the colleague directly and offer support to seek help for the impairment.
• C. Nonmaleficence
• D. The nurse should ignore the colleague's behavior and focus on their own responsibilities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse encounters an impaired colleague, the appropriate action is to report the behavior to a supervisor and follow the institution's policy for addressing impaired practice. This ensures patient safety and upholds professional standards. Choice B is incorrect because confronting the colleague directly may not be appropriate or effective in addressing the issue, and the colleague may need more structured assistance. Choice C is a principle of ethical practice but does not directly address the specific situation of dealing with an impaired colleague. Choice D is incorrect because ignoring the colleague's behavior could potentially compromise patient safety and is not in line with professional responsibility.

2. Nurse managers need several qualities to be effective. A nurse manager is working hard to fully understand how patient outcomes are measured on the unit and how budget changes could impact patient outcomes. Which of the following qualities does this best describe?

• A. Leadership
• B. Business sense
• C. Clinical expertise
• D. Financial management

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Business sense.' Nurse managers need to understand how financial decisions impact patient outcomes, which requires a strong understanding of business principles. Leadership (choice A) is important but doesn't specifically address understanding financial and outcome-based impacts. Clinical expertise (choice C) is essential for patient care but doesn't directly relate to understanding budget changes and their impact. Financial management (choice D) is more about managing finances directly rather than understanding the broader implications of budget changes on patient outcomes.

3. Which of the following actions by the healthcare provider would be considered false imprisonment?

• A. The healthcare provider tells the client they are not allowed to leave until the physician has released them.
• B. The healthcare provider asks the client why they wish to leave.
• C. The healthcare provider asks the client to explain what they understand about their medical diagnosis.
• D. The healthcare provider asks the client to sign an against medical advice discharge form.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. False imprisonment occurs when a healthcare provider restrains a client from leaving against their will, even if the provider believes it is in the client's best interest. In this scenario, telling the client they are not allowed to leave until the physician has released them constitutes false imprisonment as it restricts the client's freedom of movement. Choice B is incorrect because asking the client why they wish to leave is a form of assessment and does not involve restraining the client. Choice C is incorrect as it pertains to educating the client about their medical condition. Choice D is incorrect because asking the client to sign an against medical advice discharge form is a legal and ethical procedure to ensure the client understands the risks of leaving against medical advice.

4. For a diabetic male client with a foot ulcer, the physician orders bed rest, a wet-to-dry dressing change every shift, and blood glucose monitoring before meals and bedtime. Why are wet-to-dry dressings used for this client?

• A. They contain exudate and provide a moist wound environment.
• B. They protect the wound from mechanical trauma and promote healing.
• C. They debride the wound and promote healing by secondary intention.
• D. They prevent the entrance of microorganisms and minimize wound discomfort.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Wet-to-dry dressings are utilized in this case to debride the wound by removing dead tissue and promoting healing by secondary intention. Choice A is incorrect as wet-to-dry dressings do not provide a moist wound environment; instead, they promote drying to aid in debridement. Choice B is incorrect because their primary purpose is not to protect the wound but to remove dead tissue. Choice D is incorrect as the main function of wet-to-dry dressings is not to prevent the entrance of microorganisms or minimize wound discomfort.

5. When should a new nurse graduate consider applying for a position as a nurse manager?

• A. When she is comfortable in her current position
• B. When she begins mentoring other new nurses
• C. As soon as a position opens
• D. When she has developed leadership and clinical expertise

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A new nurse graduate should consider applying for a position as a nurse manager when she has developed leadership and clinical expertise. Option A, 'When she is comfortable in her current position,' is incorrect as comfort in the current position may not necessarily align with the skills required for a managerial role. Option B, 'When she begins mentoring other new nurses,' is not a definitive indicator of readiness for a managerial position. Option C, 'As soon as a position opens,' does not take into account the necessary skills and experience required for a nurse manager role. Therefore, the best time to consider applying for a nurse manager position is after developing the required leadership and clinical expertise.

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