HESI RN
Reproductive System Exam Quizlet
1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ideal contraceptive?
- A. Irreversible
- B. Easily available
- C. User-friendly
- D. Effective with least side effects
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Irreversible.' An ideal contraceptive should not be irreversible because it should allow individuals to have the option to discontinue its use if desired. Choices B, C, and D are characteristics of an ideal contraceptive. Contraceptives should be easily available to ensure widespread accessibility, user-friendly to promote proper and consistent use, and effective with minimal side effects to maximize safety and tolerability.
2. What is Dinoprostone commonly used for?
- A. Cervical priming.
- B. Pain management during labor.
- C. Management of pre-term labor.
- D. Management of post-partum hemorrhage.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dinoprostone is commonly used for the management of pre-term labor. While it can be used for cervical priming, its primary indication is for pre-term labor. Choice A is partially correct but not the most common use of Dinoprostone. Choices B and D are incorrect as Dinoprostone is not primarily used for pain management during labor or for the management of post-partum hemorrhage.
3. Which of the following is subsidiary uterine support?
- A. Suspensory ligament
- B. Cardinal ligament
- C. Transcervical ligament
- D. Maklouf ligament
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cardinal ligament. The cardinal ligament is a primary uterine support structure that helps to anchor the uterus in place. The suspensory ligament also provides support for the uterus but is not considered a subsidiary uterine support. The transcervical ligament does not exist in anatomical terminology. The Maklouf ligament is a fictitious term and not recognized as a subsidiary uterine support structure.
4. Which of the following hormone ratios is MOST likely to be increased in a patient with PCOS?
- A. Progesterone/estrogen
- B. LH/FSH
- C. FSH/LH
- D. Glucagon/insulin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In patients with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS), the LH/FSH ratio is most likely to be increased. This hormonal imbalance is a key characteristic of PCOS, where elevated LH levels relative to FSH contribute to the pathophysiology of the condition. Choice A, progesterone/estrogen ratio, is not typically a defining feature of PCOS. Choice C, FSH/LH ratio, is the reverse of what is commonly observed in PCOS. Choice D, glucagon/insulin ratio, is not directly related to the hormonal imbalances seen in PCOS.
5. Which hormone is detected in pregnancy tests?
- A. Estrogen
- B. Progesterone
- C. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
- D. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is the hormone detected in pregnancy tests. During pregnancy, the placenta produces hCG, which can be detected in the urine or blood to confirm pregnancy. Estrogen and progesterone are also essential hormones in pregnancy but are not typically used for pregnancy tests. Luteinizing hormone (LH) is involved in the menstrual cycle and ovulation, not pregnancy.
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