Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ideal contraceptive?

• A. Irreversible
• B. Easily available
• C. User-friendly
• D. Effective with least side effects

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Irreversible.' An ideal contraceptive should not be irreversible because it should allow individuals to have the option to discontinue its use if desired. Choices B, C, and D are characteristics of an ideal contraceptive. Contraceptives should be easily available to ensure widespread accessibility, user-friendly to promote proper and consistent use, and effective with minimal side effects to maximize safety and tolerability.

2. What is the triangular space lying between the vaginal and rectal canals?

• A. Pelvic floor
• B. Perineum
• C. Vestibule
• D. Perineal body

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Perineum. The perineum is the triangular space located between the vaginal and rectal canals. It is a region containing various muscles, nerves, and blood vessels that support the pelvic floor. Choice A, Pelvic floor, refers to the structure supporting the organs in the pelvic cavity, not the space between the vaginal and rectal canals. Choice C, Vestibule, is the space within the labia minora containing the openings of the urethra and vagina, not the area between the vaginal and rectal canals. Choice D, Perineal body, is a fibromuscular mass in the perineum area but not the space between the vaginal and rectal canals.

3. Amniocentesis deals with patterns of ______ in the amniotic fluid.

• A. Fingers
• B. DNA
• C. Chromosomes
• D. Proteins

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Amniocentesis is a prenatal test that involves examining chromosomes in the amniotic fluid to detect genetic abnormalities. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Chromosomes.' The other choices, such as 'Fingers,' 'DNA,' and 'Proteins,' do not accurately represent what is analyzed during an amniocentesis procedure and are unrelated to the genetic information obtained through this test.

4. Which of the following is a common presentation in women with polycystic ovarian syndrome?

• A. Oligomenorrhea, obesity, and hirsutism
• B. Amenorrhea, generalized hair loss, and weight gain
• C. Repeated ectopic pregnancies and chronic pelvic pain
• D. Fatigue, body aches, and menorrhagia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oligomenorrhea, obesity, and hirsutism. Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) commonly presents with irregular periods (oligomenorrhea), obesity, and increased hair growth (hirsutism) due to hormonal imbalances. Choice B is incorrect as amenorrhea (absence of periods), generalized hair loss, and weight gain are not typical features of PCOS. Choice C is incorrect as repeated ectopic pregnancies and chronic pelvic pain are not characteristic of PCOS. Choice D is incorrect as fatigue, body aches, and menorrhagia (excessive menstrual bleeding) are not primary symptoms seen in PCOS.

5. Which technique is used to detect HIV/AIDS?

• A. Northern blot and ELISA
• B. Immunoblot and ELISA
• C. Western blot and ELISA
• D. Southern blot and ELISA

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Western blot and ELISA. Western blot and ELISA are commonly used techniques in the detection of HIV/AIDS. Western blot is used to confirm the presence of HIV antibodies in a patient's blood after an initial positive ELISA test. Northern blotting is a technique used for RNA analysis, not for detecting HIV/AIDS (Choice A). Immunoblotting is another term for Western blotting, so Choice B is incorrect. Southern blotting is used for DNA analysis, not for detecting HIV/AIDS (Choice D).

Similar Questions