Nursing Elites

1. Which nursing action is best when managing a client with severe anxiety?

• A. Maintain a calm manner
• B. Help the client identify thoughts prior to the anxiety
• C. Administer anti-anxiety medication
• D. Initiate seclusion if anxiety escalates

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to maintain a calm manner. When managing a client with severe anxiety, the nurse's calm presence can help the client feel more secure and reduce their anxiety levels. It is essential to create a safe and supportive environment. Helping the client identify thoughts prior to anxiety (choice B) may be beneficial in cognitive-behavioral interventions but may not be the initial best action for severe anxiety. Administering anti-anxiety medication (choice C) should be done by a healthcare provider's order and is not the first-line intervention for managing severe anxiety. Initiating seclusion (choice D) should only be considered as a last resort if the client is at risk of harm to themselves or others, as it can further escalate anxiety and should not be the initial action.

2. A client who decides not to have surgery despite significant blockages in his coronary arteries is an example of what principle?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Autonomy
• C. Justice
• D. Non-maleficence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Autonomy. Autonomy in healthcare refers to respecting a patient's right to make decisions about their own care, even if those decisions may not align with healthcare providers' recommendations. In this scenario, the client's decision not to have surgery despite significant blockages in his coronary arteries demonstrates his autonomy in making choices about his own health. Choice A, Fidelity, refers to the concept of keeping promises and being faithful to commitments, which is not applicable in this situation. Choice C, Justice, involves fairness and equal treatment in healthcare, which is not the primary principle at play when a patient exercises autonomy. Choice D, Non-maleficence, relates to the principle of doing no harm, which is important but not directly relevant to the client's decision to refuse surgery.

3. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

4. What are common risk factors for urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

• A. Poor hygiene and dehydration
• B. Increased sexual activity and pregnancy
• C. Use of urinary catheters and prolonged bed rest
• D. Family history and obesity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Poor hygiene and dehydration are common risk factors for urinary tract infections (UTIs). While choices B, C, and D may play a role in certain cases, poor hygiene and dehydration are more universally recognized as key factors contributing to UTIs. Increased sexual activity and pregnancy (choice B) can also increase the risk of UTIs, but they are not as universal as poor hygiene and dehydration. Choices C and D, the use of urinary catheters and prolonged bed rest, and family history and obesity, respectively, are risk factors for UTIs but are not as commonly associated as poor hygiene and dehydration.

5. What is the role of a nurse in managing a patient with kidney disease?

• A. Monitor blood pressure and provide dietary education
• B. Monitor urine output and provide IV fluids
• C. Administer diuretics and restrict fluid intake
• D. Monitor for cardiac arrhythmias and provide dialysis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Nurses play a crucial role in managing patients with kidney disease by monitoring blood pressure and providing essential dietary education. This helps in maintaining kidney function and overall health. Choice B is incorrect because monitoring urine output and providing IV fluids are tasks usually performed by healthcare providers such as physicians or specialized staff. Choice C is incorrect as administering diuretics and restricting fluid intake are typically prescribed by a physician, and nurses may assist in monitoring the effects. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring for cardiac arrhythmias and providing dialysis are tasks that are usually overseen by healthcare providers with specialized training in cardiology and nephrology.

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