Free ATI LPN Capstone practice for PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet (ATI LPN). Answer 65 nursing exam-style questions with rationale
A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of anaphylaxis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hypotension is a critical sign of anaphylaxis. During anaphylaxis, there is a widespread vasodilation leading to a drop in blood pressure, which manifests as hypotension. This can be accompanied by other symptoms such as swelling, difficulty breathing, hives, and itching. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with anaphylaxis; instead, tachycardia is more common due to the body's response to the allergic reaction. Increased appetite (choice C) is unrelated to anaphylaxis, as individuals experiencing anaphylaxis often feel unwell and may have nausea or vomiting. Decreased respiratory rate (choice D) is also not a typical finding in anaphylaxis; instead, respiratory distress and wheezing are more commonly observed.
A client who is 8 hours postpartum asks the nurse if she will need to receive Rh immune globulin. The client is gravida 2, para 2, and her blood type is AB negative. The newborn's blood type is B positive. Which of the following statements is appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Rh-negative mothers who give birth to an Rh-positive baby should receive Rh immune globulin within 72 hours of delivery to prevent the development of antibodies in future pregnancies. Choice A is incorrect because Rh-negative individuals are the ones who require Rh immune globulin. Choice C is incorrect as the administration of Rh immune globulin is time-sensitive and not typically scheduled for a 6-week appointment. Choice D is incorrect because Rh immune globulin is necessary to prevent sensitization regardless of the number of pregnancies.
A client with multiple sclerosis reports diplopia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with multiple sclerosis reporting diplopia is to recommend alternating eye patches during the day. This strategy can help relieve diplopia (double vision) by allowing each eye to rest alternately, reducing eye strain. Encouraging the client to focus on a distant object (Choice A) is not an appropriate intervention for diplopia in this case. Applying a warm compress to the client's eyes (Choice B) and administering artificial tears (Choice D) are not effective interventions for diplopia associated with multiple sclerosis.
In the nursing process, the evaluation phase is used to determine:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The evaluation phase of the nursing process is used to determine the degree of outcome achievement. It assesses whether the goals and outcomes set during the planning phase were met. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on the worth of the intervention rather than the achievement of outcomes. Choice B is incorrect as it pertains to the assessment phase where problems are identified. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to the planning phase where the care plan is developed, not evaluated.
While in the cafeteria, a nurse overhears two APs discussing a hospitalized patient. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to choose option C: 'Quietly tell the APs that this is not appropriate.' The nurse should immediately and discreetly address the situation, reminding the APs that discussing patient information in public areas violates confidentiality. Reporting the incident to the supervisor (option A) may be necessary if the behavior continues. Joining the conversation to intervene (option B) may escalate the situation and compromise patient confidentiality. Ignoring the conversation (option D) does not address the violation or prevent it from recurring.
A client with osteoporosis is being taught about increasing calcium intake. Which of the following foods should be recommended as the best source of calcium?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Yogurt is the best choice for increasing calcium intake in a client with osteoporosis. It provides around 300-400 mg of calcium per serving, making it an excellent food source for meeting their calcium needs. Broccoli, spinach, and almonds, while nutritious, do not provide as much calcium per serving as yogurt and are not as effective in helping clients with osteoporosis increase their calcium intake.
A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change for a client with a surgical wound. Which action should the nurse take to prevent contamination during the dressing change?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take to prevent contamination during a sterile dressing change is to restart the procedure if the sterile solution splashes onto the sterile field. Any contamination of the sterile field compromises the aseptic technique and increases the risk of infection for the client. Therefore, it is crucial to maintain the sterility of the field throughout the procedure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because proceeding with the dressing change, continuing without concern for minor splashes, or delegating the task to another nurse would all compromise the sterility of the procedure and increase the risk of infection for the client.
A client who is at 32 weeks gestation and has a history of cardiac disease is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following positions should the nurse place the client in to best promote optimal cardiac output?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is the left lateral position. Placing the client in the left lateral position promotes optimal cardiac output during pregnancy by reducing pressure on the inferior vena cava, improving blood flow to the heart and fetus. Choice A, 'The chest,' is incorrect as it does not describe a position that benefits cardiac output. Choice B, 'Standing,' is incorrect as it does not alleviate pressure on the vena cava. Choice C, 'Supine,' is contraindicated in pregnancy, especially in clients with cardiac disease, as it can compress the vena cava and decrease cardiac output.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of dysphagia. Which of the following foods should be included when initiating feeding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Oatmeal is a soft, easy-to-swallow food, making it appropriate for clients with dysphagia, as it minimizes the risk of aspiration compared to liquids or hard foods. Beef broth (Choice A) is a liquid and may pose a risk of aspiration. Apple juice (Choice C) is a liquid and can also be a choking hazard for individuals with dysphagia. Toast (Choice D) is a hard food that may be difficult for a client with dysphagia to swallow safely.
A nurse is caring for an older adult client with delirium. Which intervention will most effectively reduce the client's risk for falls?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hourly rounding by the nurse is the most effective intervention to reduce the risk of falls in older adult clients with delirium. This intervention ensures that the nurse regularly checks on the client, assesses their needs, and assists them with any activities, thereby minimizing the chances of falls. Using a night-light (choice A) may help improve visibility but does not provide continuous assistance and monitoring. Demonstrating how to use the call light (choice B) is important but may not prevent falls directly. Placing the bedside table in close proximity (choice C) is helpful for convenience but does not address the continuous monitoring and assistance needed to prevent falls in this case.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of potassium chloride. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action when administering potassium chloride is to dilute the medication before administration. Potassium chloride is a highly concentrated solution that can cause irritation and potential complications if not properly diluted. Administering it rapidly (choice A) can lead to adverse effects. Giving it as a bolus (choice C) or administering it intramuscularly (choice D) are inappropriate routes for potassium chloride administration and can result in harm to the patient.
A nurse is assessing a client who has Parkinson's disease. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Bradykinesia. Bradykinesia, which refers to slowness of movement, is a characteristic symptom of Parkinson's disease. Other common manifestations in Parkinson's disease include tremors, muscle rigidity, orthostatic hypotension, and drooling. Pruritus (choice A) is unrelated to Parkinson's disease. While hypertension (choice B) can coexist with Parkinson's disease due to autonomic dysfunction, it is not a specific hallmark manifestation. Xerostomia (choice D) is not a primary symptom associated with Parkinson's disease.
A client is prescribed insulin glargine. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to do regarding administration of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Administer insulin glargine once daily at bedtime. Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that provides a basal level of insulin throughout the day. It should be given at the same time each day, usually at bedtime, to maintain a consistent blood sugar level. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Injecting insulin glargine before a meal (Choice A) is not necessary as it is a long-acting insulin. Shaking the insulin vial (Choice B) is not recommended as it may cause bubbles to form, affecting the accuracy of the dose. Taking insulin glargine with short-acting insulin (Choice D) is not a typical practice as insulin glargine is used for basal insulin coverage.
A school nurse is providing care for students in an elementary education facility. What intervention by the nurse addresses the primary level of prevention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Teach students about healthy food choices. Teaching healthy habits like proper nutrition is an example of primary prevention because it aims to prevent disease before it occurs. Choice A, monitoring for signs of illness, is more related to secondary prevention (early detection and treatment). Choice C, administering medication to students with chronic conditions, is a form of tertiary prevention (managing existing conditions to prevent complications). Choice D, monitoring immunization compliance, is also a form of primary prevention but focuses on preventing specific infectious diseases through immunization rather than general health promotion.
A nurse is planning a staff education program to review nursing interventions for patients who have kidney failure. What source should the nurse identify as the best source for obtaining evidence-based practice information?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: A recent peer-reviewed nursing research article. Peer-reviewed research articles provide the most current and reliable evidence-based practice information for clinical care. Choice B, a website for a nursing association, may have valuable information but may not always guarantee the highest level of evidence. Choice C, a textbook published 5 years ago, may not reflect the most up-to-date practices and guidelines. Choice D, an expert opinion from a seasoned nurse, though valuable, is not as reliable as evidence derived from peer-reviewed research articles.
A client with peptic ulcer disease reports a headache. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Acetaminophen is the preferred analgesic for clients with peptic ulcer disease because it does not cause gastrointestinal irritation, unlike Ibuprofen, Naproxen, and Aspirin, which can exacerbate peptic ulcer symptoms and lead to gastrointestinal complications.
A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease. The nurse should identify which of the following laboratory values as an indication for hemodialysis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 14 mL/min indicates severely impaired kidney function, often necessitating hemodialysis to support renal function and manage fluid and electrolyte balance. A BUN level of 16 mg/dL falls within the normal range (7-20 mg/dL) and does not specifically indicate the need for hemodialysis. Serum magnesium at 1.8 mg/dL and serum phosphorus at 4.0 mg/dL are also within normal ranges and do not typically prompt the immediate need for hemodialysis in chronic kidney disease.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of warfarin. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: When administering warfarin, it is crucial to verify the patient's INR levels. INR monitoring is essential to ensure that the patient is receiving the correct dose of warfarin for their condition and to minimize the risk of bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because administering warfarin with food, monitoring blood glucose levels, and assessing liver function are not directly related to the safe administration and monitoring of warfarin therapy.
While caring for a newborn under phototherapy lights, what is an appropriate nursing action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to ensure an eye shield is covering the eyes. This action is essential to protect the newborn's eyes from the bright light used in phototherapy. Applying lotion to the exposed skin (Choice B) is not necessary and may interfere with the treatment. Offering glucose water between feedings (Choice C) is not indicated and may not be appropriate for a newborn undergoing phototherapy. Discontinuing breastfeeding during treatment (Choice D) is not recommended as breastfeeding should be continued unless contraindicated.
A nurse is teaching a client about the use of levetiracetam. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Levetiracetam can cause mood changes and behavioral side effects, so clients should be monitored for these effects. Choice A is incorrect because levetiracetam is not typically associated with weight loss. Choice C is incorrect as levetiracetam is a prescription medication, not available over the counter. Choice D is incorrect as all medications, including levetiracetam, have potential side effects.
A nurse is planning care for four clients. Which client is the highest priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because numb fingers indicate neurovascular compromise, which can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. The priority in this situation is to assess and address any circulation issues affecting the extremity. Choices A, C, and D are of concern but not as immediate as neurovascular compromise, which requires urgent attention to prevent further complications.
A nurse is teaching a client about the use of nitrofurantoin. Which of the following should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Nitrofurantoin can cause a harmless brown discoloration of urine. Choice B is also correct as it should be taken with food to enhance absorption. Choice C is incorrect as nitrofurantoin does have side effects, such as gastrointestinal disturbances. Choice D is incorrect as nitrofurantoin is not recommended during the last month of pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.
A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Oliguria (reduced urine output), increased urine concentration, and a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 are indicative of dehydration, particularly in clients using diuretics excessively. Choice A is incorrect because a urine specific gravity of 1.035 is high, indicating concentrated urine but not specifically dehydration. Choice C, polyuria, refers to increased urine output and is not consistent with dehydration. Choice D, hypotension, is a sign of fluid volume deficit but is not specific to dehydration as described in the scenario.
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client following a below-the-knee amputation. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid sitting in a chair for prolonged periods. This is important to prevent contractures from developing in the residual limb. Sleeping with a pillow under the residual limb can contribute to contracture formation rather than prevent it. While elevation of the limb is important for reducing swelling and promoting circulation, continuous elevation for 48 hours is not necessary and may not be practical. Applying lotion to the residual limb daily is generally not recommended immediately post-amputation as the wound site needs to heal without interference from lotions or creams.
A nurse observes an assistive personnel (AP) providing care to a child who is in skeletal traction. Which of the following actions requires intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Placing weights on the child's bed can alter the traction, which must remain constant to be effective. This action requires immediate intervention to prevent harm. Providing a high-protein snack (Choice A) is appropriate for the child's nutritional needs. Assisting the child to reposition (Choice B) helps prevent complications such as pressure ulcers. Massaging pressure points (Choice D) can help promote circulation and prevent skin breakdown. However, altering the traction by placing weights on the bed can be detrimental to the child's condition and must be corrected promptly.
A hospice nurse is providing teaching to a patient who has a new diagnosis of a terminal illness and her family. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement that the nurse should include in the teaching is option D: 'Hospice care continues to help families with grief after a death occurs.' Hospice care not only focuses on providing comfort care for terminal patients but also offers bereavement support to families after the patient's death. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Option A is incorrect because hospice care does not provide rehabilitation for the patient; its focus is on comfort and quality of life. Option B is incorrect because hospice care does not aim to extend life but rather to provide quality end-of-life care. Option C is incorrect because hospice care does not transition patients to nursing care; it provides care focused on comfort and symptom management in the patient's preferred setting.
A healthcare provider is providing education on the use of clozapine. Which of the following should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct Answer: A nurse should include monitoring for agranulocytosis when educating a patient about clozapine. Clozapine is known to cause agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening decrease in white blood cells. This adverse effect requires close monitoring to detect it early. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clozapine is not a first-line treatment for most conditions, it is more commonly associated with weight gain rather than weight loss, and it is known to have a risk for metabolic syndrome.
A nurse is caring for a client 4 hours postoperative following a thyroidectomy. The client reports fullness in the throat. What should the nurse assess for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the correct answer is B: Hemorrhage. Fullness in the throat post-thyroidectomy can indicate postoperative bleeding, a critical complication that requires immediate assessment and intervention. Choice A, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect because it does not typically present with fullness in the throat. Choice C, Hypoxia, is not directly related to the symptom described and is not the primary concern in this situation. Choice D, Hypothyroidism, is also incorrect as it is a long-term condition and unlikely to manifest suddenly 4 hours postoperatively with throat fullness.
A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube following a thoracotomy. Which of the following findings requires intervention by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. There should be 2 cm of water in the water seal chamber of the chest tube system. A level of 1 cm may indicate a leak or compromised functionality that requires intervention. Choices A, B, and D are not findings that necessarily require immediate intervention. Tidaling with spontaneous respirations is an expected finding, the drainage collection chamber being 1/3 full is within normal limits, and a suction chamber pressure of -20 cm H2O indicates appropriate suction for chest drainage.
While providing education about the use of lorazepam, which of the following should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'It can cause dependency.' Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine known to cause dependency, so it is crucial for clients to be informed about this potential risk. Choice B is incorrect as combining lorazepam with alcohol can lead to increased sedation and other adverse effects. Choice C is incorrect because lorazepam, like any medication, can have side effects such as drowsiness, dizziness, or confusion. Choice D is also incorrect as lorazepam is a sedative-hypnotic medication, not a stimulant.
A client is being educated by a nurse on nutritional intake. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Carbohydrates should make up 45-65% of daily caloric intake as they are the body's main source of energy. This aligns with general dietary recommendations. Choice B is incorrect as protein should typically make up about 10-35% of daily caloric intake, not 55%. Choice C is also incorrect, as carbohydrates should ideally be between 45-65%, not 30%. Choice D is incorrect because protein should generally account for around 10-35% of total caloric intake, not 60%.
A community health nurse is teaching a group of clients about first aid for wounds. Which client statement indicates understanding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Applying clean dressings over blood-saturated ones and holding pressure helps to control bleeding and prevent tissue disruption. Removing blood-saturated dressings can cause further damage by disrupting the forming clot. Elevating the wound above heart level is beneficial to reduce swelling, but it is not the best immediate action for a blood-saturated dressing. Leaving the wound open to air can increase the risk of infection and slow down the healing process.
A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of insulin. Which of the following should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to verify the client's blood glucose level first before administering insulin. This step is crucial to determine the appropriate dose of insulin based on the client's current blood glucose level. Checking the expiration date (Choice A) is important but not the first step in this scenario. Obtaining the client's weight (Choice C) is not directly related to the immediate administration of insulin. Assessing for signs of hypoglycemia (Choice D) should be done after administering insulin to monitor for potential side effects or adverse reactions.
A nurse is planning to delegate client assignments to the assistive personnel. Which of the following tasks is appropriate for the nurse to delegate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Collect a urine sample. Delegating this task to assistive personnel is appropriate as it falls within their scope of practice. Tasks like adjusting the flow rate of oxygen tanks, measuring pain levels, and monitoring blood glucose levels require clinical judgment and should be performed by a nurse. It is important for nurses to delegate tasks that align with the competencies of assistive personnel to ensure safe and effective patient care.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client newly prescribed methadone. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Trouble sleeping is not a typical side effect of methadone; the nurse should clarify this misunderstanding. Choices A, C, and D are all correct statements regarding methadone. Methadone can indeed slow breathing, so it is important for the client to be aware of this effect. Avoiding alcohol while taking methadone is crucial due to the increased risk of central nervous system depression when alcohol is combined with methadone. Additionally, changing positions slowly can help prevent dizziness, which can be a side effect of methadone.
A client with HIV and neutropenia requires specific care from the nurse. Which of the following precautions should the nurse take while caring for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Using dedicated equipment for a neutropenic client, such as a stethoscope, helps prevent infections. Neutropenic clients have a weakened immune system, making them vulnerable to infections from common pathogens. Wearing an N95 respirator is not necessary unless airborne precautions are required. Inserting a urinary catheter should be avoided unless necessary to prevent introducing pathogens. Monitoring vital signs should be done more frequently, typically every 4 hours, to promptly identify any changes in the client's condition.
A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for enoxaparin to prevent DVT. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to inject enoxaparin in the lateral abdominal wall. This site is typically recommended for subcutaneous injections of this medication. Expelling air bubbles from prefilled syringes is not necessary and may result in medication loss. Massaging the injection site is contraindicated as it can cause bruising or hematoma formation. Administering NSAIDs for injection site discomfort is unnecessary and not a standard practice.
A nurse is providing education on the use of corticosteroids. Which of the following should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor for signs of hyperglycemia when educating on corticosteroids. Corticosteroids can increase blood glucose levels, making it essential to watch for hyperglycemia, especially in diabetic patients. Choice B is incorrect because corticosteroids should not be abruptly stopped due to the risk of adrenal insufficiency. Choice C is incorrect as corticosteroids are associated with various adverse effects, making long-term use risky. Choice D is incorrect as dehydration is not typically a primary concern directly related to corticosteroid use.
When designing a program for young adults regarding safe sexual practices, which strategy might reach the greatest number in the target group?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Web-based applications are the most effective strategy for reaching young adults in the target group regarding safe sexual practices. Young adults today are highly engaged with mobile technology and the internet, making web-based applications the most accessible and convenient method to disseminate information. Print-based media like newspapers may not have the same reach and engagement among young adults. Television advertisements might reach a broader audience, but they may not be as targeted to the specific demographic of young adults. Brochures in kiosks in malls are less likely to reach a large number of young adults compared to web-based applications, which can be accessed anytime and anywhere through mobile devices.
A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of iron supplement. Which of the following should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Administer it on an empty stomach. Iron supplements are best absorbed on an empty stomach to enhance their absorption. It is important to avoid giving them with milk or dairy products as these can inhibit iron absorption. Checking blood pressure and monitoring for allergic reactions are not directly related to the administration of iron supplements and are not the primary considerations in this case.
A nurse is caring for a client with a sealed radiation implant. Which action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Wear a dosimeter badge. When caring for a client with a sealed radiation implant, the nurse should wear a dosimeter badge to monitor radiation exposure. This badge helps measure the amount of radiation the nurse is exposed to during care. Choice A is incorrect because removing dirty linens after double-bagging is not directly related to managing radiation exposure. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific time limit on visitors mentioned in the context of a sealed radiation implant. Choice D is incorrect as there is no evidence supporting the need for family members to stay a specific distance away from the client.
A nurse is completing an assessment of a newborn who is 2 hours old. Which of the following findings is indicative of cold stress?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Jitteriness of the hands is a classic sign of cold stress in newborns, indicating that the infant is having difficulty maintaining a stable body temperature. Cold stress can lead to hypoglycemia and increased oxygen consumption. The other options (A, C, and D) are not directly associated with cold stress in newborns. A respiratory rate of 60 per minute may be within the normal range for a newborn. Diaphoresis (excessive sweating) and bounding peripheral pulses are not specific signs of cold stress in newborns.
A nurse is teaching a client with newly diagnosed hypertension about lifestyle changes. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Exercise for at least 30 minutes most days of the week.' Regular exercise, especially aerobic activity, is known to help lower blood pressure and should be included in lifestyle changes for managing hypertension. Choice A is incorrect because the recommended sodium intake for individuals with hypertension is usually lower than 3,000 mg per day. Choice C is incorrect as it is advisable to limit alcohol intake to one drink per day for women and two drinks per day for men. Choice D is incorrect because increasing fluid intake to 3 liters per day may not be necessary and could be harmful in some cases, depending on the individual's health status.
A nurse is caring for a group of clients in a long-term care facility. Which of the following situations should the nurse recognize as a safety hazard?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Tying wrist restraints to the bed rails is a safety hazard because if the bed rails are lowered, the restraints can tighten and cause injury or asphyxiation. Choice B, placing a bedside table across the foot of the bed, may not be ideal for convenience but does not pose a direct safety hazard. Choice C, leaving a meal tray at the bedside from breakfast, is more of an infection control issue than an immediate safety hazard. Choice D, having a call light extension cord pinned to the bedspread, is also not a direct safety hazard unless it poses a risk of entanglement or tripping, which is not indicated in the scenario.
A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for metoprolol. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and angina. As a beta-blocker, it primarily affects the cardiovascular system by reducing heart rate and blood pressure. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's blood pressure regularly to assess the drug's effectiveness and ensure that it is within the therapeutic range. Monitoring liver function, serum potassium levels, or blood glucose is not typically required for clients taking metoprolol, as its primary impact is on the heart and blood vessels, making choice A the most appropriate monitoring parameter.
A nurse is providing teaching to a parent of a child who has asthma and a new prescription for a cromolyn sodium metered dose inhaler. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates the need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Cromolyn sodium is a preventive medication and should not be used as a rescue inhaler when wheezing starts. This indicates a need for further teaching as the parent should understand that cromolyn sodium is not meant for immediate relief of symptoms. Choice B is correct as rinsing the mouth after using the inhaler helps reduce the risk of oral thrush, a common side effect. Choice C is correct as exhaling completely before using the inhaler helps ensure proper inhalation of the medication. Choice D is correct as a spacer can be used if the child has difficulty coordinating breathing with the inhaler, improving medication delivery.
A client has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: 'You may experience diarrhea with this medication.' Diarrhea is a common side effect of metformin, particularly when initiating the medication. It is important for clients to be aware of this potential side effect. Option A is incorrect because metformin is usually taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Option B is not directly related to metformin use. Option C is incorrect as muscle pain is not a common side effect of metformin and does not warrant stopping the medication.
A healthcare professional is caring for a client receiving potassium-sparing diuretics. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: When a client is receiving potassium-sparing diuretics, the healthcare professional should monitor for hyperkalemia. Potassium-sparing diuretics can cause potassium retention, leading to elevated potassium levels in the blood. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia-related complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because potassium-sparing diuretics typically do not cause hypokalemia, hypoglycemia, or hyponatremia.
In orienting new staff nurses to a pediatric intensive care unit, what is an important consideration in providing information to parents of a critically ill child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing parents' preferences about the amount of information is crucial because it allows for individualized care that respects their needs and emotional capacity during a stressful time. Choice A is not ideal as overwhelming parents with complete information during each encounter may not align with their preferences. Choice C, while valuable, may not always be feasible or appropriate due to privacy concerns or medical procedures. Choice D, providing brochures, may not address the specific needs or preferences of each set of parents, making it less effective than assessing individual preferences.
A client receiving oxytocin IV for labor augmentation is experiencing contractions every 45 seconds. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. Contractions occurring every 45 seconds indicate uterine hyperstimulation, which can pose risks to both the client and the fetus. By stopping the oxytocin infusion, the nurse can help prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing, decreasing, or maintaining the oxytocin infusion can exacerbate the uterine hyperstimulation and increase the risks associated with it.
A nurse is caring for a client with a prescription for duloxetine. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A) Liver function. Duloxetine can affect liver function, making it crucial for the nurse to monitor liver function tests. Monitoring serum electrolytes (choice B), blood glucose (choice C), or potassium levels (choice D) is not directly associated with duloxetine use and would not be the priority in this case.
A client who is 2 hours postpartum reports heavy bleeding and passing large clots. What is the nurse's priority action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Perform fundal massage. Fundal massage promotes uterine contractions, which is the initial action to reduce postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine atony. Checking vital signs (choice C) is important but not the priority when active bleeding is present. Administering oxytocin IV (choice B) may be needed but is not the priority action. Encouraging the client to void (choice D) does not address the underlying issue of postpartum hemorrhage and should not be the priority.
A client had a pituitary tumor removed. Which of the following findings requires further assessment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output greater than fluid intake can indicate diabetes insipidus, a common complication after pituitary surgery. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the excretion of a large volume of dilute urine, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. This finding requires immediate assessment and intervention. Choice A, a Glasgow scale score of 15, indicates normal neurological functioning. Choice B, blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm, may require monitoring but is not a priority over the potential complication of diabetes insipidus. Choice C, a report of dry mouth, is a common complaint postoperatively and can be managed with oral care measures.
A nurse is caring for a client who has peptic ulcer disease (PUD) and is prescribed sucralfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach, 1 hour before meals. This timing allows sucralfate to form a protective barrier over the ulcer, enhancing healing. Choice A is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with an antacid. Choice C is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with food. Choice D is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken at bedtime only; it is best absorbed on an empty stomach.
A client is being taught about the use of metformin. Which of the following should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Metformin should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice A is the correct answer as taking metformin with meals can help reduce the likelihood of experiencing gastrointestinal side effects like diarrhea and nausea, which are common side effects of metformin. Choice B is incorrect because metformin actually helps lower blood sugar levels and does not cause hyperglycemia. Choice C is incorrect as metformin is usually taken twice or even three times a day, not just once daily. Choice D is incorrect because metformin is an oral medication, not an injectable one.
A healthcare provider is teaching a client about the use of sertraline. Which of the following should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct answer: Monitoring for suicidal thoughts is essential when a client is prescribed sertraline, an antidepressant. Choice A is incorrect because weight gain is not typically associated with sertraline. Choice B is incorrect as sertraline is not an antipsychotic medication. Choice D is incorrect because all medications, including sertraline, have potential side effects.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client with heart failure. Which of the following signs should the healthcare professional monitor for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In heart failure, the accumulation of fluid can lead to peripheral edema, which is swelling in the extremities. This is a common sign that healthcare professionals should monitor for. While tachycardia (increased heart rate), bradycardia (decreased heart rate), and hypotension (low blood pressure) can also occur in heart failure, they are not the primary signs typically associated with this condition. Therefore, peripheral edema is the most relevant sign to monitor in this case.
A healthcare provider is among the first responders to a mass-casualty incident and does not know what type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is needed. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In situations where the type of hazard is unknown, the healthcare provider should choose the highest level of protection equipment available. This helps ensure adequate protection against any potential hazards that may be present. Using only basic gloves and a mask (Choice A) may not provide sufficient protection if the hazard is more severe. Opting for respiratory protection only (Choice C) may leave other areas of the body vulnerable to exposure. While asking a colleague for advice (Choice D) is good practice in general, in urgent situations like mass-casualty incidents with unknown hazards, it is crucial to prioritize immediate protection by selecting the highest level of PPE.
A nurse is preparing to administer iron dextran IV to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action the nurse should plan to take when preparing to administer iron dextran IV is to administer a small test dose before giving the full dose. This is done to assess for any allergic reactions that the client may have to the medication. Choice B is incorrect because iron dextran should be infused slowly over a longer period, typically over 1-2 hours to reduce the risk of adverse reactions. Choice C is incorrect because iron dextran administration is more commonly associated with hypotension rather than hypertension. Choice D is incorrect because cyanocobalamin is not used as an antidote for iron dextran toxicity; instead, treatment for iron toxicity may involve supportive care, chelation therapy, or in severe cases, iron antidotes like deferoxamine.
A nurse is caring for a client who has breast cancer and has been receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A WBC count of 3,000/mm3 indicates neutropenia, a dangerous complication of chemotherapy that increases the risk of infection and requires immediate attention. Neutropenia is a common side effect of chemotherapy and can lead to life-threatening infections. Reporting a low WBC count is crucial to ensure timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose immediate risks to the client undergoing chemotherapy.
A client has been prescribed ferrous sulfate. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction the nurse should provide to a client prescribed ferrous sulfate is to take it with fluids other than coffee or tea. Coffee and tea can inhibit iron absorption. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding strawberries, citrus fruits, and melon is not necessary for improving absorption of ferrous sulfate, taking it on a full stomach is not recommended, and doubling the dose if a dose is missed can lead to an overdose.
A client has a new prescription for levothyroxine. What should the nurse teach the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to take levothyroxine on an empty stomach. This is because levothyroxine should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach to ensure proper absorption. Option A is incorrect because levothyroxine is usually advised to be taken in the morning. Option B is not the priority teaching point as monitoring for hypothyroidism symptoms is ongoing care. Option C is incorrect as levothyroxine should not be taken with calcium supplements as they can interfere with its absorption.
When educating a client about valproic acid, which instruction is essential?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor for rash. Valproic acid can lead to severe skin rashes, and patients must be vigilant to report any rash promptly. Choice B is incorrect as valproic acid is more likely to cause weight gain. Choice C is incorrect because valproic acid is associated with birth defects and should be avoided during pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect as valproic acid is a prescription medication and not available over-the-counter.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for vancomycin 1 g IV every 12 hours. The client is scheduled to have the morning dose at 0700. The nurse should schedule the trough level to be drawn at which of the following times?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The trough level of vancomycin should be drawn just before the next dose is administered, typically about 30 minutes before the scheduled dose. Since the morning dose is at 0700, the trough level should be drawn at 1800. This timing ensures an accurate measurement of the lowest concentration of the drug in the client's system before the next dose is given. Choice A (2100) is too close to the next dose, choice B (900) is too early, and choice C (1300) is also too far from the next dose.
A nurse is teaching a client about nonpharmacological pain management techniques. Which statement about hypnosis is appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: "Hypnosis promotes increased control of pain perception during labor." Hypnosis can be effectively utilized during labor to help individuals enhance their control over how they perceive pain. Choice B is incorrect because hypnosis does not primarily use therapeutic touch to reduce anxiety. Choice C is incorrect as hypnosis is not primarily focused on biofeedback as a relaxation technique. Choice D is incorrect because hypnosis does not provide direct instructions to minimize pain but rather helps individuals gain control over their pain perception.
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