Free ATI LPN Capstone practice for PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A (ATI LPN). Answer 65 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam
A client is receiving IV moderate sedation with midazolam and has a respiratory rate of 9/min. What should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Administer flumazenil. Flumazenil is the reversal agent for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and should be administered to counteract respiratory depression. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) could further compromise their breathing. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not indicated as the first step when dealing with respiratory depression due to sedation. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not appropriate in this situation where the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to medication sedation.
A nurse is administering subcutaneous heparin to a client who is at risk for deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Heparin is best absorbed and less likely to cause hematomas when administered into subcutaneous tissue, specifically the abdomen, which is a common site for subcutaneous injections. Injecting heparin into a muscle (Choice B) is incorrect as it should be administered subcutaneously. Massaging the site after administering the medication (Choice C) is contraindicated as it can cause tissue damage or bruising. Using a 22-gauge needle (Choice D) is not recommended for subcutaneous injections of heparin; a smaller needle size such as 25-26 gauge is preferred for subcutaneous administration.
A nurse is assessing a client who has schizophrenia and is experiencing negative symptoms. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Flat affect. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia involve deficits in normal emotional responses or other thought processes. These symptoms include a flat affect (reduced emotional expression), social withdrawal, and avolition (lack of motivation). Hallucinations and delusions are characteristic of positive symptoms, which involve the presence of abnormal behaviors or experiences. Paranoia is more associated with delusions rather than negative symptoms.
A client is receiving enoxaparin for the prevention of DVT. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to inject enoxaparin into the lateral abdominal wall for subcutaneous absorption. This site is commonly used for administering this type of medication. Expelling air bubbles from the syringe is not necessary and may result in a reduced dose being administered. Massaging the injection site is not recommended as it can lead to bruising or irritation. Administering an NSAID for injection site discomfort is not indicated as discomfort at the injection site is usually minimal and self-limiting.
A nurse is caring for a client prescribed metoprolol. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for as an adverse effect of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Hypotension. Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, can lead to a decrease in blood pressure, resulting in hypotension. Monitoring blood pressure regularly is essential to detect and manage this adverse effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because metoprolol typically does not cause bradycardia, tachycardia, or hyperglycemia as its primary adverse effects.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis (TB). The client has a productive cough and is started on airborne precautions. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to wear an N95 respirator mask when caring for the client with TB. This is crucial to prevent the nurse from inhaling the airborne particles that spread the infection. Choice B is incorrect because placing the client in a semi-private room does not address the protection of the nurse. Choice C is incorrect as having the client wear a surgical mask during meals is not sufficient to protect the nurse during all interactions. Choice D is incorrect as using a negative pressure air filtration system is more applicable to airborne infection isolation rooms in healthcare settings and not a standard intervention for nurses caring for a single client with TB.
A nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a client who is to begin long-term oral prednisone for asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When initiating long-term oral prednisone therapy for asthma, it is essential to schedule the medication on alternate days. This approach helps reduce the risk of adverse effects commonly associated with corticosteroid use. Choice A is incorrect because abrupt discontinuation of prednisone can lead to adrenal insufficiency. Choice B is incorrect as prednisone should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because using an extra dose of prednisone to treat shortness of breath is not appropriate and can lead to overdosing.
A client is prescribed digoxin and has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. In this case, the nurse should administer the digoxin without any modifications. Lowering the dose (Choice B) may not be necessary if the potassium level is not critically low. Monitoring serum potassium levels (Choice C) is important but should not delay the administration of digoxin. Discontinuing the medication (Choice D) is not the initial action to take unless the potassium levels become severely low and life-threatening.
What teaching points are important for the nurse to discuss with a client with hearing loss who has been fitted for a hearing aid?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct teaching point for a client with hearing loss who has been fitted for a hearing aid is to use mild soap and water to clean the ear mold. It is important to keep the ear mold clean to prevent infections and maintain proper functioning. Choice A is incorrect because using the highest setting can lead to discomfort and may not be necessary for all situations. Choice C is incorrect as the hearing aid should generally be turned off when not in use, not just during sleep, to conserve battery life. Choice D is incorrect as immersing the hearing aid in saline solution can damage the device; it should be kept dry to prevent malfunction.
A nurse is caring for a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Which food selection indicates an understanding of dietary teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Rice with black beans.' Clients with hepatic encephalopathy should limit animal proteins due to their high ammonia content, which can exacerbate symptoms. Plant-based proteins like beans are preferred as they help reduce ammonia levels. Choices A, B, and D contain animal proteins that are not ideal for clients with hepatic encephalopathy.
A nurse on the medical-surgical unit is receiving reports on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client who is 4 hours postoperative following a thyroidectomy and reports fullness in the throat should be assessed first. This client may be experiencing airway obstruction due to hematoma or swelling, making it a priority. Options A, B, and C have concerning findings as well, but airway compromise takes precedence over other issues.
A nurse is caring for a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which action should the nurse take if the client develops toxicity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In cases of magnesium sulfate toxicity, administering calcium gluconate IV is crucial as it is the antidote for magnesium sulfate. Calcium gluconate helps reverse the effects of magnesium sulfate, especially when signs of toxicity like respiratory depression or loss of reflexes occur. Increasing the magnesium sulfate infusion would worsen toxicity. Administering IV fluids may be beneficial for hydration but does not address magnesium sulfate toxicity. Hydralazine is used to manage hypertension, not magnesium sulfate toxicity.
A client is receiving digoxin therapy. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client is receiving digoxin therapy, it is crucial for the nurse to monitor liver function, serum electrolytes (especially potassium levels), and blood pressure. Digoxin is known to affect the heart's electrical activity and can lead to toxic effects if not managed properly. Monitoring liver function helps to assess the drug's metabolism and excretion. Checking serum electrolytes, especially potassium, is essential because digoxin toxicity can be exacerbated by electrolyte imbalances, particularly hypokalemia. Monitoring blood pressure is necessary because digoxin can influence cardiac contractility and heart rate, potentially affecting blood pressure. Therefore, monitoring all these parameters is vital to ensure the client's safety and therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because monitoring only one or two of these parameters may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the client's response to digoxin therapy.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Which instruction should the nurse give to the client to monitor for hypoglycemia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for diaphoresis.' Diaphoresis, which refers to excessive sweating, is a common symptom of hypoglycemia. It indicates a low blood sugar level and should prompt immediate treatment. Polyuria (excessive urination), abdominal pain, and thirst are not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Polyuria is more commonly linked to hyperglycemia, while abdominal pain and thirst are not specific symptoms of hypoglycemia.
A client with a closed head injury has their eyes open when pressure is applied to the nail beds, and they exhibit adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists. The client also moans with stimulation. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Score?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client's Glasgow Coma Score is 7. This is calculated by assigning 2 points for eye-opening to pain, 2 points for incomprehensible sounds, and 3 points for flexion posturing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A (4) would be the score if the client displayed decerebrate posturing instead of flexion posturing. Choice C (9) would be the score if the client exhibited eye-opening to speech, confused speech, and decorticate posturing. Choice D (10) would be the score if the client showed eye-opening spontaneously, oriented speech, and obeyed commands, which is not the case here.
A nurse has been caring for a female client who has bruises on her arms that she explains are a result of physical abuse by her husband. The client states, "I don't know how much longer I can take this, but I'm afraid he'll really hurt me if I leave." Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assisting the client in reporting the abuse is a critical step in ensuring her safety and initiating legal action to protect her from further harm. Option A is inappropriate as it may escalate the situation and put the client at further risk. Option B focuses on the client recognizing signs of abuse, which is not as urgent as reporting it to authorities. Option C places the responsibility on the client for triggering the abuse, which is victim-blaming and not helpful in this context.
The nurse instructs the patient about incentive spirometry as part of preoperative teaching. Which phase of the nursing process does this illustrate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Instructing a patient about incentive spirometry falls under the implementation phase of the nursing process. During this phase, nursing interventions are put into action. Assessment (choice A) involves collecting data about the patient's condition, planning (choice B) involves setting goals and creating a care plan, and evaluation (choice D) involves assessing the outcomes of nursing interventions. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as it reflects the active teaching and intervention part of the process.
A nurse is providing teaching for a child who is prescribed ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Take with a glass of orange juice.' Ferrous sulfate should be taken with orange juice (vitamin C) to enhance the absorption of iron. Taking it with milk (choice A) is not recommended as calcium can interfere with iron absorption. Taking it at bedtime (choice C) or with meals (choice D) may lead to decreased absorption due to interactions with other food or medications.
A client is found on the floor of their room experiencing a seizure. Which action is the nurse's priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a seizure, the priority action for the nurse is to place the client on their side with their head forward. This position helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration of fluids or secretions. Restraint should never be used during a seizure as it can cause harm to the client. Performing a neurological assessment is important but not the immediate priority during an active seizure. While monitoring vitals is essential, ensuring the client's airway is clear takes precedence.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Clients with chronic kidney disease should limit their intake of phosphorus because high phosphorus levels can lead to bone disease and cardiovascular problems. Increasing foods high in potassium (choice B) is not recommended as it can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease. Decreasing intake of foods high in iron (choice C) is not specifically indicated for chronic kidney disease. Increasing calcium supplements (choice D) may not be necessary and can potentially lead to hypercalcemia in individuals with kidney disease.
A nurse is planning to discharge a client who has quadriplegia to his home. The nurse suggests that the family might need respite care services. When a family member asks how respite care can help, which response should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Respite care is designed to give primary caregivers temporary relief from the responsibilities of care, allowing them to take a break. Choice A is incorrect because respite care is not primarily focused on providing medical support to the client. Choice B is incorrect as respite care does not specifically assist with financial planning for the client's needs. Choice C is incorrect as respite care does not provide long-term housing, but rather short-term relief for caregivers.
A nurse is teaching a client about the use of pantoprazole. Which of the following should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct information to include when teaching a client about pantoprazole is that it can cause headaches. Option A is incorrect because pantoprazole is usually taken before meals. Option B is not necessary information for the client to know. Option D is not directly related to the side effects of pantoprazole.
A client who was incarcerated for theft is addressing the group in a County Jail health clinic. Which of the following is an example of reaction formation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because reaction formation occurs when a person expresses the opposite of what they feel. In this case, the client is advocating for honesty, despite their own history of theft. Choice A discusses stealing to distract from a bad marriage, which does not involve expressing the opposite of one's feelings. Choice B focuses on denial, not reaction formation. Choice C involves delaying emotional discussion, which is not related to expressing the opposite of one's true feelings.
A nurse is caring for a client in preterm labor who is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which of the following is an indication of magnesium toxicity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Urine output of 20 mL/hour. Urine output below 30 mL/hour is a sign of magnesium toxicity due to the risk of accumulation in the body. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of magnesium toxicity. Elevated blood glucose, systolic blood pressure, and normal respiratory rate are not specific signs of magnesium toxicity.
A client is prescribed omeprazole. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Omeprazole can cause hypomagnesemia, a condition characterized by low magnesium levels in the blood. Monitoring magnesium levels is crucial to detect and address this potential adverse effect. Liver function (Choice A) is not typically affected by omeprazole. Blood glucose (Choice C) and hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are not directly impacted by omeprazole administration. Therefore, magnesium levels (Choice B) are the most appropriate parameter to monitor in a client prescribed omeprazole.
A nurse enters a patient's room and finds the client pulseless. The living will requests no resuscitation be performed, but the provider has not written the prescription. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to begin CPR. Even though the living will requests no resuscitation, without a written do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order from the provider, the nurse is ethically and legally bound to initiate CPR to provide life-saving measures until further confirmation is obtained. Notifying the family (Choice A) may cause a delay in providing immediate care. Waiting for further instructions (Choice C) can be time-consuming and compromise patient outcomes. Documenting the event (Choice D) is important but should follow after initiating CPR to ensure patient safety and adherence to protocols.
A nurse is admitting a client who is in labor and at 38 weeks of gestation to the maternal newborn unit. The client has a history of herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2). Which of the following questions is most appropriate for the nurse to ask the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask the client in this scenario is whether they have any active lesions. Active lesions from HSV-2 during labor increase the risk of neonatal transmission, which would necessitate a cesarean section to prevent the infant from contracting the virus during delivery. Asking about the presence of active lesions is crucial to determine the appropriate management and precautions needed to protect the newborn. Choices A, B, and D are not as pertinent in this situation and do not directly address the potential risk of neonatal transmission of HSV-2.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Which of the following foods indicates understanding of dietary teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Rice with black beans.' Plant-based proteins such as beans are recommended for clients with hepatic encephalopathy to reduce ammonia production from animal proteins. Cottage cheese (choice A), tuna salad (choice B), and a three-egg omelet (choice D) are high in animal proteins, which can contribute to increased ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy, making them less suitable dietary choices for these clients.
A nurse is caring for a client who repeatedly refuses meals. The nurse overhears an assistive personnel telling the client, "If you don't eat, I'll put restraints on your wrists and feed you." The nurse should intervene and explain to the AP that this statement constitutes which of the following torts?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Assault. Assault is the act of threatening a client with harm, such as the threat of using restraints to force-feed the client, even if no physical contact occurs. In this scenario, the statement made by the assistive personnel constitutes assault because it involves the threat of harm. Choice B, Battery, involves actual physical contact without the client's consent, which is not present in the scenario. Choice C, Malpractice, refers to professional negligence or misconduct, not a direct threat to the client. Choice D, Negligence, involves failure to provide reasonable care that results in harm, which is not applicable in this context.
During a change-of-shift assessment, a nurse is evaluating four clients. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Lethargy and confusion in a client with gastroenteritis are concerning findings that may indicate severe dehydration or electrolyte imbalance, requiring immediate intervention. While the other options are important, they do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the altered mental status in a client with gastroenteritis.
A public health nurse is developing a list of interventions to address the 3 core functions of public health. What interventions should the nurse include as a part of the assurance function?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Organize an immunization clinic for at-risk members of the community.' The assurance function of public health involves ensuring that essential public health services, like immunizations, are provided to meet public health goals. Choice A, collecting data on health trends, is more aligned with the assessment function of public health. Choice C, developing policies to address health disparities, pertains to the policy development function. Choice D, conducting research on communicable diseases, is related to the research function rather than the assurance function.
A healthcare provider is educating a client about the use of montelukast. Which of the following should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist that is typically taken once daily in the evening for asthma management. Choice A is incorrect as montelukast is not used for acute asthma attacks but rather for the prevention of asthma symptoms. Choice C is also incorrect because montelukast can be taken with or without food. Choice D is misleading as all medications, including montelukast, have potential side effects.
A client with ulcerative colitis has been prescribed sulfasalazine. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Jaundice. Sulfasalazine can cause liver damage as a possible adverse effect, which can manifest as jaundice. Monitoring for jaundice is crucial to detect liver-related adverse effects early. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Constipation, oral candidiasis, and sedation are not typically associated with sulfasalazine use. Therefore, the nurse should focus on educating the client specifically about monitoring for jaundice.
A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about contraindications to ceftriaxone. The nurse should include a severe allergy to which of the following medications as a contraindication to ceftriaxone?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Ceftriaxone is a cephalosporin, and individuals with a penicillin allergy (such as Piperacillin) may have cross-sensitivity, making it contraindicated. Gentamicin (Choice A) belongs to the aminoglycoside class, not related to cephalosporins. Clindamycin (Choice B) is a lincosamide antibiotic and is not typically associated with cross-allergies to cephalosporins. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (Choice D) is a sulfonamide antibiotic, also not directly related to ceftriaxone.
A client at 38 weeks gestation with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 is being admitted. Which of the following questions is most appropriate to ask the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate question to ask a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 at 38 weeks gestation is whether they have any active lesions. Active herpes lesions during labor can necessitate a cesarean delivery to prevent neonatal transmission. Asking about ruptured membranes (choice A), beta strep status (choice C), or contraction timing (choice D) is important but not the priority when managing a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 due to the high risk of neonatal transmission.
A nurse is teaching a client with mild persistent asthma about montelukast. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist that helps reduce swelling and mucus production in the airways, making it useful for long-term asthma management.
A client who has a new prescription for simvastatin is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Grapefruit juice can increase the risk of toxicity with simvastatin, so clients should avoid consuming it while on the medication. Choice A is incorrect because the timing of medication administration should be based on healthcare provider instructions. Choice C is incorrect because simvastatin is prescribed to lower cholesterol levels. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring kidney function is not specifically related to simvastatin therapy.
A nurse is teaching a client about the use of fluoxetine. Which of the following should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: When educating a client about fluoxetine, it is essential to mention that it can take several weeks for the therapeutic effects to be noticed. This is because fluoxetine is an SSRI that requires time to build up in the body and start producing its intended effects. Choice B is incorrect as fluoxetine is not an antipsychotic medication but an SSRI. Choice C is inaccurate because fluoxetine can be taken at any time of the day, and there is no specific requirement to take it at night. Choice D is incorrect as all medications, including fluoxetine, have potential side effects that should be discussed with the client.
A home health nurse is providing teaching to a family of a client who has seizure manifestations as a result of an inoperable brain tumor. What intervention should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention the nurse should include in the teaching is to pad the side rails of the bed. By padding the side rails, the nurse can help prevent injury if the patient experiences a seizure. Administering antiseizure medications promptly (Choice A) is typically the responsibility of a healthcare provider or according to a prescribed schedule. Using oral airway devices during seizures (Choice B) can pose risks and should be managed by healthcare professionals. Applying restraints during a seizure (Choice D) is not recommended as it can lead to further injury and complications.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic renal failure. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client with chronic renal failure is to restrict protein intake to the RDA. This is important because limiting protein helps reduce the buildup of waste products that the kidneys are unable to efficiently excrete. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice A) may further burden the kidneys, increasing the risk of fluid overload. Increasing dietary potassium (choice C) is not recommended in chronic renal failure as impaired kidneys have difficulty regulating potassium levels. Encouraging foods high in sodium (choice D) is also not appropriate as excessive sodium intake can lead to fluid retention and hypertension, which are detrimental in renal failure.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a latex allergy and is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action the nurse should take is to wrap monitoring cords with stockinette. This measure ensures that the latex in the cords does not come into contact with the client's skin, reducing the risk of an allergic reaction. Applying tape to the client's skin before surgery (Choice A) may expose the client to latex if the tape contains latex. Ensuring the surgical suite is well-ventilated (Choice B) is important for overall safety but does not specifically address the client's latex allergy. Scheduling the surgery at the end of the day (Choice D) is not directly related to preventing latex exposure and allergic reactions.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who is postop following abdominal surgery. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse identify as increasing the client's risk for complications?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Suppression of the urge to defecate postoperatively can lead to complications such as constipation, which can increase the risk of complications after abdominal surgery. Walking twice daily (choice A) is actually beneficial for preventing complications such as deep vein thrombosis. Suppression of the urge to cough (choice B) can lead to issues like atelectasis. Lack of ambulation (choice D) can also contribute to complications like pneumonia and blood clots.
A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.
A client is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which finding indicates magnesium toxicity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Diminished deep tendon reflexes are a sign of magnesium toxicity. Magnesium sulfate can depress the central nervous system, leading to decreased reflexes. Respiratory rate of 12/min, urine output 40 mL/hr, and systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg are not specific findings of magnesium toxicity. Respiratory depression, oliguria, and hypotension are more concerning signs that require immediate attention.
A client receiving opiates for pain management was initially sedated but is no longer sedated after three days. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: No action is needed at this time. Sedation from opiates commonly decreases as the body adjusts to the medication. It is a positive sign that the sedation has resolved, indicating the client is tolerating the current dosage well. Initiating additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques (Choice A) is unnecessary since the current pain management regimen is effective. Notifying the provider for a dosage adjustment (Choice B) is premature and not indicated when the sedation has resolved. Contacting the provider to request an alternate method of pain management (Choice D) is excessive and not warranted in this situation where the client is no longer sedated and the current pain management plan is effective.
A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings as an indication of magnesium toxicity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. Magnesium sulfate toxicity can lead to diminished deep tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, and decreased urine output. Diminished deep tendon reflexes are an early sign of magnesium toxicity and indicate the need to discontinue the infusion. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) is not typically associated with magnesium toxicity. Increased urinary output (choice C) is also not a common finding in magnesium toxicity. Hyperreflexia (choice D) is not consistent with the expected findings of magnesium toxicity, which typically causes decreased reflexes.
A client with osteoporosis is being taught by a nurse about dietary changes. Which of the following food choices should the nurse recommend to promote bone health?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Fortified orange juice. Fortified orange juice is often supplemented with calcium and vitamin D, both of which are essential for bone health and the prevention of osteoporosis. Leafy green vegetables (choice A) are good for overall health but may not provide sufficient calcium for bone health. Red meat (choice B) is a source of protein but is not a primary source of calcium. Whole grains (choice D) are beneficial for fiber intake but do not contain significant amounts of calcium or vitamin D necessary for bone health.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 38 weeks pregnant and has a history of herpes simplex virus 2. Which question is most appropriate for the nurse to ask?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask is whether the client has any active herpes lesions. This is crucial because the presence of active lesions can necessitate a cesarean section to prevent transmission of the virus to the newborn. Asking about membrane rupture (choice A) is important but not directly related to the client's herpes simplex virus 2 status. Inquiring about the frequency of contractions (choice B) is relevant for assessing labor progression but does not address the immediate concern of herpes transmission. Asking about being positive for beta strep (choice D) is important for determining the need for prophylactic antibiotics during labor, but it is not directly related to the client's herpes simplex virus 2 status.
A nurse is assessing a 1-hour postpartum client and notes a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a nurse assesses a 1-hour postpartum client with a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus, it indicates uterine atony. The first action the nurse should take is to massage the fundus. Fundal massage helps stimulate uterine contractions, which will reduce bleeding and prevent postpartum hemorrhage. Taking vital signs, assessing lochia, or administering an oxytocin IV bolus are important interventions but should come after addressing uterine atony through fundal massage.
A home health nurse is providing teaching to a patient who has a new diagnosis of a gastric ulcer and a new prescription for sucralfate oral suspension. What statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach, 1 hour before meals, and at bedtime to coat the ulcer and protect it from stomach acid. Choice A is incorrect because taking it with meals may reduce its effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect as it should not be taken right before bed. Choice D is incorrect as sucralfate should be taken regularly as prescribed, not just when symptoms occur.
A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct first action the nurse should take when preparing to administer packed RBCs to a client is to verify the client's identification with another nurse. This is crucial to ensure that the correct blood product is administered to the correct client, minimizing the risk of a transfusion reaction. Administering an antihistamine prior to transfusion (Choice A) is not the first priority and is not a standard practice. While checking the client's vital signs (Choice B) is important, verifying the client's identification takes precedence to prevent a critical error. Priming the IV tubing with normal saline (Choice D) is a necessary step in the process but should occur after verifying the client's identity.
A nurse is teaching a client about dietary modifications for a low-sodium diet. Which of the following should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to limit intake of processed foods. Processed foods are often high in sodium, which goes against the goal of a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruits and vegetables are recommended for a low-sodium diet due to their natural low sodium content. The use of accessory muscles and monitoring for allergic reactions are not related to dietary modifications for a low-sodium diet.
A nurse is caring for a client prescribed lisinopril. Which of the following medication interactions should the nurse instruct this client about?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Potassium supplements. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can increase potassium levels in the body. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid potassium supplements to prevent hyperkalemia, a potentially dangerous condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not have significant interactions with lisinopril that would lead to adverse effects like hyperkalemia.
A nurse is obtaining the medical history of a client who has a new prescription for isosorbide mononitrate. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a contraindication to this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Isosorbide mononitrate is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma due to its potential to increase intraocular pressure, which can exacerbate the condition. Hypertension, polycythemia, and migraine headaches are not contraindications for isosorbide mononitrate. In fact, isosorbide mononitrate is commonly used in the management of hypertension and certain types of angina.
A client newly diagnosed with asthma is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Keeping a diary of albuterol use helps monitor the frequency and severity of asthma symptoms, which can guide the healthcare provider in adjusting treatment as needed. Option A is incorrect because fluticasone is a controller medication used for long-term management, not for treating acute asthma attacks. Option B is incorrect as using a peak flow meter once a week may not provide real-time information on asthma control. Option D is incorrect as limiting fluid intake does not directly prevent mucus production in asthma.
A client newly diagnosed with osteoporosis is being taught by a nurse about preventing complications. Which food should the nurse recommend?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Oatmeal is an excellent recommendation for clients with osteoporosis due to its richness in fiber and nutrients, making it a heart-healthy and bone-friendly choice. Fried chicken (Choice A) is high in unhealthy fats and lacks the nutrients needed for bone health. Whole milk (Choice B) contains calcium but can be high in saturated fats, which may not be the best choice for individuals with osteoporosis. Bacon (Choice D) is high in saturated fats and sodium, which can have negative effects on bone health and overall well-being.
A nurse working at the clinic is teaching a group of clients who are pregnant on the use of nonpharmacological pain management. Which of the following is an appropriate description of the use of hypnosis during labor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Hypnosis during labor helps the client gain increased control over her perception of pain, allowing for better pain management during contractions. Choice A is incorrect because hypnosis and biofeedback are distinct techniques. Choice C is incorrect as therapeutic touch and hypnosis are different modalities. Choice D is incorrect as hypnosis does not simply provide instruction to minimize pain, but rather helps the individual control their perception of pain.
A client with a new prescription for an albuterol metered-dose inhaler is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction is to hold your breath for 10 seconds after inhaling the medication. This allows the medication to settle in the lungs and maximize its effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect as inhaling quickly may lead to improper medication delivery. Choice C is wrong because taking a second puff immediately after the first without waiting for the prescribed interval may cause an overdose. Choice D is also incorrect as exhaling fully after using the inhaler may result in the medication being exhaled rather than absorbed by the lungs.
A nurse is planning to administer epoetin alfa to a client who has chronic kidney failure. Which of the following data should the nurse plan to review prior to administration of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Blood pressure. Epoetin alfa can increase blood pressure, especially in clients with chronic kidney failure. Monitoring blood pressure before administration is crucial to prevent hypertension. Reviewing temperature, blood glucose levels, or total protein levels is not directly related to the potential side effect of increased blood pressure associated with epoetin alfa.
A nurse is providing teaching about breastfeeding to a client who is postpartum. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Ensure your newborn has at least six wet diapers per day.' Six or more wet diapers per day is an indicator that the newborn is receiving adequate breast milk, making this an important part of breastfeeding education. Choice A is incorrect because washing nipples with soap after each feeding can lead to dryness and cracking. Choice B is incorrect as babies should nurse on demand rather than on a strict schedule of 5 minutes every 4 hours. Choice D is incorrect as giving water to a newborn between feedings is not recommended and can interfere with breastfeeding.
A client is being taught about the use of digoxin. Which of the following should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'It can cause bradycardia.' Digoxin can cause bradycardia as one of its side effects. Clients should be educated about this potential effect and instructed to monitor their heart rate before taking the medication. Choice A is incorrect because digoxin is more likely to cause arrhythmias than low blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as calcium supplements can interfere with the absorption of digoxin. Choice D is incorrect as digoxin has various side effects, and clients should be aware of them.
A client has been prescribed metoclopramide. Which of the following should the nurse include in client education regarding this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Notify your provider if you experience restlessness or spasms of the face or neck.' Metoclopramide can cause extrapyramidal symptoms, such as restlessness and muscle spasms, particularly of the face and neck. These symptoms should be reported to the provider immediately. Choice B is incorrect because metoclopramide is not meant to be taken only when feeling nauseous; it is used to treat nausea and vomiting. Choice C is incorrect because it is important to stay hydrated while taking metoclopramide. Choice D is incorrect because metoclopramide is usually taken before meals to improve gastric emptying, not necessarily on an empty stomach.
A nurse is providing teaching for a client who is prescribed enoxaparin for DVT prevention. What is an appropriate action by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for a nurse when administering enoxaparin for DVT prevention is to inject the medication into the lateral abdominal wall. This is the recommended site for enoxaparin administration. Expelling the air bubble is unnecessary and may lead to a dosage error. Massaging the injection site is not recommended as it can cause bruising. Administering an NSAID for injection site discomfort is not necessary as discomfort should be minimal and transient.
While assessing four clients, which client data should be reported to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm³ is critically low and places the client at high risk for infection, necessitating immediate intervention. Neutropenia increases susceptibility to infections, making it essential to report this finding promptly. The other options, such as pain level in pleurisy, drainage amount from a drain, and heart rate postoperatively, are important but do not indicate an immediate life-threatening condition that requires urgent provider notification.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following assessment findings requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A rapid weight gain of 2 kg/day suggests fluid overload, a possible complication of TPN. This requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as pulmonary edema. The other options are not indicative of immediate complications related to TPN. A low prealbumin level may indicate malnutrition but does not require immediate intervention. A slightly elevated temperature and blood glucose level are within normal ranges and do not warrant immediate action.
Your time is up
You’ve reached the end of your allocated time, but you can still review the questions and continue navigating the exam.
Restart exam?
Reset progress and restart the exam? Your current score will be saved before your answers are cleared.