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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for chlorothiazide to treat hypertension. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Thrombophlebitis
- B. Hyperactive reflexes
- C. Muscle weakness
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Muscle weakness. Chlorothiazide, a thiazide diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia, which can cause muscle weakness. Thrombophlebitis (choice A) is not typically associated with chlorothiazide use. Hyperactive reflexes (choice B) and hypoglycemia (choice D) are also not commonly linked to this medication. Therefore, monitoring for muscle weakness is crucial when a client is prescribed chlorothiazide.
2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg PO daily to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take hydrochlorothiazide as needed for edema.
- B. Check your weight once weekly.
- C. Take the hydrochlorothiazide on an empty stomach.
- D. Take the hydrochlorothiazide in the morning.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to take hydrochlorothiazide in the morning. This medication is usually advised to be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia, which is excessive urination at night. Option A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide should be taken daily as prescribed, not as needed for edema. Option B is incorrect as monitoring weight weekly may not be specifically related to hydrochlorothiazide therapy. Option C is incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer iron dextran IV to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Administer a small test dose before giving the full dose
- B. Infuse the medication over 30 seconds
- C. Monitor client closely for hypertension
- D. Administer cyanocobalamin as an antidote if toxicity occurs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should plan to take when preparing to administer iron dextran IV is to administer a small test dose before giving the full dose. This is done to assess for any allergic reactions that the client may have to the medication. Choice B is incorrect because iron dextran should be infused slowly over a longer period, typically over 1-2 hours to reduce the risk of adverse reactions. Choice C is incorrect because iron dextran administration is more commonly associated with hypotension rather than hypertension. Choice D is incorrect because cyanocobalamin is not used as an antidote for iron dextran toxicity; instead, treatment for iron toxicity may involve supportive care, chelation therapy, or in severe cases, iron antidotes like deferoxamine.
4. A nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a client who is to begin long-term oral prednisone for asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Stop taking the medication if a rash occurs.
- B. Take the medication on an empty stomach to enhance absorption.
- C. Schedule the medication on alternate days to decrease adverse effects.
- D. Treat shortness of breath with an extra dose of the medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When initiating long-term oral prednisone therapy for asthma, it is essential to schedule the medication on alternate days. This approach helps reduce the risk of adverse effects commonly associated with corticosteroid use. Choice A is incorrect because abrupt discontinuation of prednisone can lead to adrenal insufficiency. Choice B is incorrect as prednisone should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because using an extra dose of prednisone to treat shortness of breath is not appropriate and can lead to overdosing.
5. A client with peptic ulcer disease reports a headache. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Ibuprofen
- B. Naproxen
- C. Aspirin
- D. Acetaminophen
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Acetaminophen is the preferred analgesic for clients with peptic ulcer disease because it does not cause gastrointestinal irritation, unlike Ibuprofen, Naproxen, and Aspirin, which can exacerbate peptic ulcer symptoms and lead to gastrointestinal complications.
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