Free ATI LPN Capstone practice for PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B (ATI LPN). Answer 65 nursing exam-style questions with rationales,
A healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following should the healthcare provider monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring serum glucose levels is essential due to the impact TPN can have on glucose metabolism. Additionally, electrolytes like potassium should be monitored as they can be affected by TPN administration. Blood pressure monitoring is not directly related to TPN administration, making choices A and B the correct options to monitor in this scenario.
A nurse is reviewing a prescription for doxazosin with a client. Which instruction should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Rise slowly when sitting up.' Doxazosin can cause orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing up, leading to dizziness or fainting. Instructing the client to rise slowly helps prevent this adverse effect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A decrease in caloric intake to reduce weight gain, an increase in dietary fiber to prevent constipation, and taking the medication each morning are not specific instructions related to managing the side effects of doxazosin.
A client with chronic kidney failure and an AV fistula for hemodialysis is prescribed epoetin alfa. Which of the following therapeutic effects should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Promotes RBC production. Epoetin alfa stimulates erythropoiesis (red blood cell production) to treat anemia associated with chronic kidney failure. This helps in increasing the hemoglobin levels and improving oxygen-carrying capacity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as epoetin alfa does not have direct effects on reducing blood pressure, inhibiting clotting of the fistula, or stimulating the growth of neutrophils.
A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving education on foot care. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Cut toenails straight across. This instruction is vital for clients with diabetes as it helps prevent ingrown toenails and infections, reducing the risk of foot ulcers. Applying lotion between the toes (choice A) should be avoided as it can create a moist environment prone to fungal infections. Using a heating pad (choice C) can lead to burns or injuries due to reduced sensation common in diabetes. Soaking feet in warm water daily (choice D) can also increase the risk of skin breakdown and should be avoided.
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a long arm cast. Which of the following findings indicates a moderate complication when assessing for acute compartment syndrome?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Edema is a common sign of acute compartment syndrome, which is a medical emergency caused by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, requiring immediate intervention. Shortness of breath (Choice A) is more indicative of a respiratory issue rather than acute compartment syndrome. Petechiae (Choice B) are pinpoint, round spots that appear on the skin due to bleeding under the skin and are not typically associated with acute compartment syndrome. Change in mental status (Choice C) is more suggestive of neurological issues rather than acute compartment syndrome.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has mild persistent asthma and has been prescribed montelukast. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Montelukast works as a leukotriene receptor antagonist, reducing inflammation and mucus production, which helps prevent asthma attacks but is not used for acute treatment. It is important for the client to understand that montelukast should be taken regularly to manage asthma symptoms and should not be abruptly discontinued. Taking the medication before exercise is not a typical instruction for montelukast.
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have impaired ability to activate vitamin D, leading to decreased production of calcitriol. Calcitriol is essential for calcium absorption in the intestines. Therefore, hypocalcemia is a common finding in chronic kidney disease. Hypernatremia (increased sodium levels) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Low potassium and low magnesium are possible electrolyte imbalances in chronic kidney disease, but they are not as directly related to the impaired activation of vitamin D as hypocalcemia.
A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. What should the nurse identify as a catheter occlusion?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Bladder distention. Bladder distention indicates that the bladder is full and there is impaired elimination, which could be caused by catheter occlusion. Pain during urination (choice A) is not typically associated with catheter occlusion but may indicate a urinary tract infection. Cloudy urine (choice C) can be a sign of infection but is not specific to catheter occlusion. Blood in the catheter tube (choice D) may indicate trauma during catheter insertion but is not a typical finding in catheter occlusion.
A client with a cystocele is encouraged to exercise to strengthen pelvic floor muscles and prevent pelvic organ prolapse. What exercise will the client need to perform?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: The client with a cystocele should perform Kegel exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, reducing the risk of pelvic organ prolapse and stress urinary incontinence. Kegel exercises specifically target the muscles that support the pelvic organs. Isometric exercises focus on static muscle contractions and may not be as effective as Kegel exercises for strengthening the pelvic floor. Circumduction exercises involve circular movements at joints and are not specific to pelvic floor muscle strengthening. Uterine extension exercises do not directly target the pelvic floor muscles and are not indicated for cystocele management.
A nurse is caring for a client newly prescribed doxazosin mesylate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in client education regarding taking the first dose of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Doxazosin can cause first-dose orthostatic hypotension, which may lead to dizziness or fainting when the client stands up too quickly. The nurse should advise the client to change positions slowly and lie down if dizziness occurs to prevent falls and other injuries. Choice B is incorrect because while the client can continue normal activities, caution should be taken with position changes. Choice C is incorrect as doxazosin does not interact with dairy products. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to avoid green leafy vegetables specifically while taking doxazosin.
A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of escitalopram. Which of the following should the nurse assess first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to assess for mood changes. When administering escitalopram, it is crucial to evaluate mood changes first because the medication may take some time to demonstrate its full effects on the patient's mood. Assessing blood pressure, heart rate, or liver function is not the priority when administering escitalopram, as these parameters are not directly impacted acutely by this medication.
A nurse is caring for a client in the second trimester of pregnancy and asks how to treat constipation. Which of the following statements by the nurse is appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Drinking hot water with lemon juice in the morning is a natural and safe way to stimulate bowel movements and relieve constipation during pregnancy. Option A is incorrect as vitamins and supplements should not be decreased without consulting a healthcare provider, especially during pregnancy. Option B is inadequate as the recommended daily fiber intake during pregnancy is higher than 15g. Option C, while important for overall health, does not directly address constipation relief in pregnancy.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has heart failure and a new prescription for digoxin 0.215 mg PO daily and furosemide 20 mg PO daily. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clients taking digoxin and furosemide are at risk for hypokalemia. Eating potassium-rich foods can help maintain normal potassium levels.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has end-stage liver disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In end-stage liver disease, the liver's inability to convert ammonia into urea leads to elevated ammonia levels. Elevated ammonia levels can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Elevated albumin (Choice A) is not typically seen in end-stage liver disease as liver dysfunction often leads to decreased albumin levels. Decreased total bilirubin (Choice C) is unlikely in end-stage liver disease, as bilirubin levels tend to be elevated due to impaired liver function. Decreased prothrombin time (Choice D) is also not expected in end-stage liver disease, as impaired liver function results in prolonged prothrombin time.
A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about managing their condition. Which of the following statements shows an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Clients with chronic kidney disease often develop anemia due to reduced erythropoietin production, leading to decreased red blood cell production. Iron supplementation is frequently required to enhance red blood cell production. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in chronic kidney disease, there is a need to restrict phosphorus intake, control carbohydrate intake for blood sugar management, and monitor electrolytes and fluid balance rather than blood glucose levels.
A nurse is assessing a client who reports chest pain. Which of the following findings should cause the nurse to suspect a myocardial infarction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Radiating pain, especially to the left arm, is a classic sign of myocardial infarction. Pain that radiates to the left arm indicates cardiac involvement, making it a significant finding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because chest pain that improves with rest, worsens with deep breathing, or is relieved by antacids is less likely to be associated with a myocardial infarction.
A client is being educated by a nurse about the use of bupropion. Which of the following should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Bupropion may lower the seizure threshold, increasing the risk of seizures, especially in clients with a history of seizures. Choice A is incorrect because bupropion is associated with weight loss rather than weight gain. Choice C is incorrect as bupropion is not an SSRI; it is an aminoketone antidepressant. Choice D is incorrect as bupropion, like all medications, can have side effects, and it is essential for clients to be aware of them.
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and has stomatitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Red, open sores in the mouth. Stomatitis, a common side effect of chemotherapy, presents with red, open sores in the mouth, which can be painful and increase the risk of infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because stomatitis typically does not manifest as dry, cracked lips, bleeding gums, or foul-smelling breath.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of infection. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Question: A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of infection. The correct answer is 'Fever.' Fever is a common sign of infection and indicates an immune response to an invading pathogen. Increased energy (Choice A) is not typically associated with infection, as the body often feels fatigued when fighting an infection. Improved appetite (Choice C) and stable weight (Choice D) are not specific signs of infection and may not necessarily indicate the presence of an infectious process. Therefore, the healthcare professional should focus on monitoring for fever as a key indicator of infection.
A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for chlorpromazine to treat schizophrenia. The client has a mask-like facial expression and is experiencing involuntary movements and tremors. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Amantadine. Amantadine is used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms, such as mask-like facial expressions, involuntary movements, and tremors, which are common side effects of antipsychotic medications like chlorpromazine. Bupropion is an antidepressant and not indicated for treating these symptoms. Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used for depression and anxiety disorders, not for extrapyramidal symptoms. Hydroxyzine is an antihistamine used for anxiety and allergic conditions, not for the side effects described in the client.
A nurse is preparing to teach a client about the management of hypoglycemia. Which sign should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which refers to excessive sweating, is a classic symptom of hypoglycemia. Instructing the client to monitor for diaphoresis is crucial as it can help them recognize and address hypoglycemic events promptly. Polyuria (excessive urination), abdominal pain, and thirst are not typical signs of hypoglycemia. Polyuria is more commonly associated with conditions like diabetes mellitus, while abdominal pain and thirst are not specific indicators of low blood sugar levels.
A healthcare provider is assessing a client for allergies before administering propofol. Which of the following allergies is a contraindication to the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Eggs. Propofol is contraindicated in clients with egg allergies because it contains egg lecithin, which can trigger allergic reactions in sensitive individuals. Milk, shrimp, and peanuts are not contraindications for propofol administration.
A nurse is assessing a client who has a blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL. Which of the following clinical manifestations is associated with this finding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Detailed Rationale: A blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia. Thirst (polydipsia) is a common clinical manifestation associated with hyperglycemia. The body tries to compensate for the high blood sugar by increasing fluid intake. Confusion (choice A) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) and shakiness (choice D) are typical manifestations of hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is increased thirst (polydipsia) in response to the elevated blood glucose level.
A nurse is teaching a group of clients about stress management. Which of the following activities should the nurse recommend to reduce stress?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Deep breathing exercises are effective in reducing stress by promoting relaxation and lowering heart rate, making them a recommended technique. Watching television may not actively reduce stress but can serve as a distraction. Drinking coffee, which contains caffeine, may increase anxiety levels. Avoiding exercise can lead to pent-up stress and tension rather than reducing it.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has tuberculosis (TB) and is prescribed rifampin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Rifampin can cause harmless red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, sweat, and tears. Clients should be informed about this side effect. Choice B is incorrect because the duration of rifampin therapy for TB is typically longer than 6 months. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to avoid dairy products while on rifampin. Choice D is incorrect as rifampin does not cause sensitivity to sunlight.
A nurse is caring for a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In acute pancreatitis, the nurse should expect elevated blood glucose levels. This is due to impaired insulin production by the inflamed pancreas. While serum amylase and lipase levels are typically elevated in acute pancreatitis, blood glucose levels are also affected due to the pancreatic dysfunction. Therefore, choices A and B are incorrect. Elevated calcium levels are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis, making choice D incorrect.
During a change-of-shift assessment, a nurse is evaluating four clients. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should report the client with gastroenteritis who is lethargic and confused to the provider first. Lethargy and confusion in a client with gastroenteritis may indicate dehydration or electrolyte imbalance, both of which can be life-threatening if not addressed promptly. The other options indicate important assessments that require intervention but do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the client with signs of dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.
A nurse in the telemetry unit is receiving the laboratory findings for an adult male client who is being treated for a myocardial infarction. Which of the following is an expected finding for the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Troponin I is a specific marker for myocardial infarction, and levels of 8 ng/mL are elevated, indicating heart muscle damage. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) is more related to heart failure rather than myocardial infarction, making choice B incorrect. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is a liver enzyme and not specific to myocardial infarction, so choice C is incorrect. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is a type of cholesterol and is not typically used to diagnose or monitor myocardial infarction, making choice D incorrect.
A nurse is planning an education session for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should the nurse plan to include when teaching the client to monitor for hypoglycemia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis (sweating) is a classic symptom of hypoglycemia, along with shakiness, confusion, and irritability. These signs help indicate low blood sugar levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Polyuria (excessive urination), abdominal pain, and thirst are not typical symptoms associated with hypoglycemia. It is crucial for clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus to recognize the early signs of hypoglycemia to take prompt corrective action.
A client presents with symptoms suggestive of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following laboratory tests should be ordered to confirm this diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Rheumatoid factor is a specific marker for rheumatoid arthritis. It is often elevated in clients with this autoimmune condition, helping to confirm the diagnosis. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and antinuclear antibody tests can be supportive but are not specific for rheumatoid arthritis. Serum calcium levels are not typically used to confirm this diagnosis.
A healthcare professional is planning to administer diltiazem via IV bolus to a client who has atrial fibrillation. When assessing the client, the healthcare professional should recognize that which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can cause hypotension. Administering it to a client who already has hypotension could exacerbate this condition. Therefore, hypotension is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem. Incorrect Choices: B) Tachycardia is not a contraindication for administering diltiazem in atrial fibrillation as it is commonly used to control the heart rate. C) Decreased level of consciousness may require evaluation but is not a direct contraindication to diltiazem administration. D) History of diuretic use is not a contraindication if the client is not currently experiencing hypotension.
A nurse is assessing a client who had a stroke and is showing signs of dysphagia. Which finding indicates this condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Abnormal mouth movements are a key sign of dysphagia, a condition commonly seen in stroke clients. Dysphagia refers to difficulty swallowing, which can manifest as abnormal movements of the mouth during eating or drinking. In stroke patients, dysphagia increases the risk of aspiration, where food or liquids enter the airway instead of the esophagus, leading to potential complications such as pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are not directly indicative of dysphagia. Inability to stand without assistance may indicate motor deficits, paralysis of the right arm suggests a neurological impairment, and loss of appetite can be a non-specific symptom in many conditions but does not specifically point to dysphagia.
A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a patient who has extensive partial and full-thickness burns of the head, neck, and chest. While planning the patient's care, the nurse should identify which of the following risks as the priority for assessment and intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a patient has extensive burns involving the head, neck, and chest, the priority concern is airway obstruction. The proximity of the burns to the airway can lead to swelling and compromise the patient's ability to breathe. In this situation, ensuring a clear airway and adequate oxygenation takes precedence over other risks such as infection, fluid imbalance, or pain management. While these are also important considerations in burn care, the immediate threat to the patient's life from airway compromise makes it the priority for assessment and intervention.
When educating a patient about gabapentin use, what should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'It can cause sedation.' Gabapentin is known to cause sedation, and patients should be advised about this side effect, especially regarding activities that require alertness. Choice B is incorrect because gabapentin should not be taken with alcohol as it can increase the risk of central nervous system depression. Choice C is incorrect because while gabapentin is used to treat nerve pain, it is not classified as a traditional pain reliever. Choice D is incorrect because gabapentin, like any medication, can have side effects, such as dizziness, drowsiness, and fatigue.
A client with a seizure disorder has a new prescription for valproic acid. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse plan to monitor? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, 'All of the Above.' Valproic acid can impact liver function and coagulation. Monitoring the Prothrombin Time (PTT), Aspartate Aminotransferase (AST), and Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) is crucial. PTT is monitored to assess coagulation status, while AST and ALT are liver enzymes that indicate liver function. Monitoring these values helps detect any potential adverse effects of valproic acid on the liver and blood clotting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these laboratory values plays a critical role in evaluating the client's response to valproic acid therapy and detecting associated complications.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse is reviewing the monitor tracing and notes early decelerations. What should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When early decelerations are noted on the fetal monitor tracing, it indicates fetal head compression, which is typically a benign finding associated with the progress of labor. Early decelerations mirror the uterine contractions and are often not a cause for concern as they are a normal response to fetal head compression during contractions. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the expected outcome of early decelerations. Fetal hypoxia, abruptio placentae, and post-maturity would present with different patterns on the fetal monitor tracing and would require different interventions.
A client with a new diagnosis of heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss, which may cause hypokalemia. Increasing potassium intake can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent sleep disturbances due to increased urination. Choice C is incorrect because a decrease in urine output could indicate a problem and should be reported immediately. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is used to reduce swelling in the body, including the lower extremities, so expecting swelling is not appropriate.
A client is being treated with thiazide diuretics. What should the nurse monitor regularly?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Thiazide diuretics are known to cause hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion in the urine. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly linked with thiazide diuretics due to increased sodium excretion. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a usual concern when a client is receiving thiazide diuretics.
A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about contraindications to ceftriaxone. The nurse should include that a severe allergy to which of the following medications is a contraindication to ceftriaxone?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Ceftriaxone, a cephalosporin antibiotic, has a cross-sensitivity with penicillin antibiotics like piperacillin. Therefore, a severe allergy to penicillin or penicillin-related antibiotics would be a contraindication to ceftriaxone. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not associated with a known cross-sensitivity with ceftriaxone.
A client with hepatic encephalopathy is being cared for by a nurse. Which food selection indicates the client understands dietary teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For clients with hepatic encephalopathy, foods high in protein like cottage cheese and tuna should be avoided. Plant-based protein sources like beans are recommended due to their lower ammonia production during digestion. Therefore, the correct choice is B. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they include high-protein or high-sodium foods that can worsen the condition of hepatic encephalopathy.
A nurse is caring for a toddler diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Using a designated stethoscope is the correct action when caring for a toddler diagnosed with RSV. This measure helps prevent the spread of infection to other clients by reducing the risk of contamination. Wearing an N95 respirator mask is not necessary for routine care of a toddler with RSV unless performing aerosol-generating procedures. Removing the disposable gown after leaving the toddler's room is important for infection control but not specific to RSV care. Placing the toddler in a room with negative air pressure is not a standard practice for managing RSV in toddlers.
A nurse is planning to administer an injection of morphine to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure client safety?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to have naloxone available in case of respiratory depression. Morphine is an opioid that can lead to respiratory depression, especially in higher doses. Naloxone is the antidote for opioid overdose and should be readily accessible when administering morphine to reverse respiratory depression if it occurs. Instructing the client to take a deep breath during administration (choice A) is not directly related to ensuring safety in this scenario. Administering the medication over 30 seconds (choice B) may help with the comfort of the client but does not address the potential risk of respiratory depression. Verifying the client's pain level (choice C) is important but not the primary action to ensure safety when administering morphine.
A client receiving IV moderate (conscious) sedation with midazolam has a respiratory rate of 9/min and is not responding to commands. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the client is showing signs of respiratory depression and central nervous system depression due to midazolam sedation. Administering flumazenil is the correct action as it is the antidote for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and can reverse the sedative effects to restore respiratory function. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) may worsen respiratory compromise. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not the first-line intervention for sedation-related respiratory depression. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not indicated as there are no signs of airway obstruction requiring suctioning.
A nurse is preparing to administer prochlorperazine 2.5 mg IV. Available is prochlorperazine injection 5 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the mL needed, set up a proportion: 5 mg / 1 mL = 2.5 mg / X mL. Cross multiply to find X: 5 * X = 2.5 * 1, X = 2.5 / 5 = 0.5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.5 mL. Choice B, 0.005 mL, is incorrect as it doesn't match the calculated result. Choice C, 0.05 mL, is incorrect as it is ten times the correct value. Choice D, 5 mL, is incorrect as it represents the total volume of the entire vial, not the amount needed for the specific dose.
A nurse has provided education to a client regarding prescribed levothyroxine sodium. Which of the following client statements demonstrates understanding of medication administration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Levothyroxine should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach to prevent insomnia and ensure proper absorption of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because taking levothyroxine at night may interfere with sleep and absorption. Choice C is incorrect as stopping the medication without consulting the healthcare provider can lead to negative health outcomes. Choice D is incorrect because levothyroxine is a daily medication that should be taken consistently, not just when symptoms are present.
A nurse is planning to administer diltiazem via IV bolus to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can cause hypotension. Administering diltiazem to a client with hypotension can further lower their blood pressure, leading to adverse effects like dizziness and syncope. Tachycardia (Choice B) is actually a common indication for diltiazem use, as it helps slow down the heart rate in conditions like atrial fibrillation. Decreased level of consciousness (Choice C) may require evaluation but is not a direct contraindication to diltiazem administration. History of diuretic use (Choice D) is not a contraindication to diltiazem, as the two medications can often be safely used together.
A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of digoxin. Which of the following should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to check the heart rate first before administering digoxin. Digoxin is a medication that directly affects the heart, so it is crucial to ensure that the heart rate is within the appropriate range before giving the dose. If the heart rate is below 60 bpm, administering digoxin could lead to toxicity. Assessing blood pressure (Choice A) is important but not the first priority when preparing to administer digoxin. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice C) is also crucial for patients on digoxin, but it is not the initial step. Reviewing the medication order (Choice D) is necessary but can be done after checking the heart rate.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has chronic kidney failure and an AV fistula for hemodialysis with a new prescription for epoetin alfa. Which of the following therapeutic effects of epoetin alfa should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Promotes RBC production. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, which is important for clients with chronic kidney disease who may have anemia due to decreased erythropoietin production by the kidneys. Options A, B, and D are incorrect: epoetin alfa does not directly reduce blood pressure, inhibit clotting of the fistula, or stimulate growth of neutrophils.
A nurse is caring for a client prescribed clopidogrel. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, so the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding and liver function tests due to potential liver effects. Monitoring liver function tests is essential to detect any adverse effects on the liver because clopidogrel can cause hepatotoxicity. While monitoring blood pressure, potassium levels, and respiratory rate are important in general patient care, they are not the priority assessments specifically related to clopidogrel use.
A client with heart failure is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Swelling in the feet can indicate worsening heart failure due to fluid retention, and clients should report this to their healthcare provider immediately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because weighing once a week may not provide timely information on fluid retention, timing of diuretic medication is usually advised in the morning to prevent nocturia, and limiting fluid intake to 3 liters per day may not be appropriate for all clients with heart failure.
A client who has osteoporosis is being discharged with a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to take the medication with a full glass of water. Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water to prevent esophageal irritation. Additionally, the client should remain upright for 30 minutes after taking it to prevent potential adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because alendronate should not be taken at bedtime, but rather in the morning on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with food. Choice D is incorrect because the client should remain upright, not lie down, for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client who has a new ileostomy. The nurse should recognize that the teaching has been effective when the client states:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. When a client with an ileostomy states that their stoma will drain liquid continuously, it indicates an understanding of the expected outcome. In an ileostomy, the stoma continuously drains liquid stool as it bypasses the large intestine where water is absorbed. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because ensuring medications are enteric-coated, changing the pouch system every two weeks, and expecting the stoma size to remain the same after healing are not accurate statements related to an ileostomy.
A nurse in the emergency department is prioritizing care for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client with slurred speech, disorientation, and a headache may be experiencing a stroke, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Identifying and managing a stroke promptly can reduce the risk of long-term disability or complications. The other options, although important, do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. A dislocated shoulder, severe joint pain in sickle cell disease, confusion with fever and foul-smelling urine, while concerning, can be addressed after attending to the client with potential stroke symptoms.
A nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Poor problem-solving ability is a common cognitive symptom of schizophrenia. It affects the client's ability to think clearly and make decisions. Decreased level of consciousness (Choice A) is not a typical assessment finding in schizophrenia. Inability to identify common objects (Choice B) is more indicative of conditions like dementia. Preoccupation with somatic disturbances (Choice D) is characteristic of somatic symptom disorders, not schizophrenia.
When teaching a client about the use of risperidone, which of the following should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for metabolic syndrome.' Risperidone is not an SSRI but an atypical antipsychotic. Choice A is incorrect. Choice C is also incorrect as risperidone, like any medication, can have side effects. Choice D is wrong because alcohol consumption should generally be avoided while taking risperidone. Educating clients about monitoring for metabolic syndrome, weight gain, and other potential side effects is crucial in managing their health effectively while on this medication.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a vaginal birth. The client reports heavy bleeding and passing large clots. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?
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Explanation:
Performing fundal massage is the priority action to take in this situation. Fundal massage helps stimulate uterine contractions, which can reduce postpartum bleeding. Uterine atony, the most common cause of early postpartum hemorrhage, can be addressed effectively through fundal massage. Administering oxytocin IV, although important, should come after initiating fundal massage. Checking vital signs is also crucial but not the immediate priority. Encouraging the client to void does not directly address the heavy bleeding and passing of large clots; hence, it is not the priority action.
A client has developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a client with a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism can lead to impaired gas exchange, causing hypoxemia. Administering oxygen helps to maintain adequate oxygenation levels. Thoracentesis is not indicated for a pulmonary embolism, as it is a procedure to remove fluid or air from the pleural space, not a treatment for embolism. Elevating the client's lower extremities is not a priority in the management of a pulmonary embolism. Administering anticoagulant therapy is important in the treatment of pulmonary embolism to prevent further clot formation, but it is not the first intervention. Oxygen administration takes precedence to address the immediate oxygenation needs of the client.
A healthcare provider is educating a client about the use of finasteride. Which of the following should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct answer: The healthcare provider should inform the client that finasteride may take several months to show therapeutic effects for conditions like hair loss or benign prostatic hyperplasia. Choice A is incorrect as finasteride is not used to treat hypertension. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride is actually used to treat hair loss, not cause it. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the risk of harm to a male fetus.
What can cause a low pulse oximetry reading?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Inadequate peripheral circulation can cause a low pulse oximetry reading by limiting blood flow to the area being measured, leading to inaccurate oxygen saturation readings. Hyperthermia (choice A) is an elevated body temperature and does not directly affect pulse oximetry readings. An increased hemoglobin level (choice B) would actually lead to higher oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood, resulting in normal or increased pulse oximetry readings. Low altitudes (choice D) typically do not cause low pulse oximetry readings unless there are other underlying conditions affecting oxygen levels.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of respiratory distress. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Question: A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of respiratory distress. Shallow breathing is a key indicator of respiratory distress, reflecting an inadequate exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Bradycardia (Choice B) refers to a slow heart rate and is not typically a direct sign of respiratory distress. Increased appetite (Choice C) and warm, dry skin (Choice D) are unrelated to respiratory distress. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for enalapril. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia by reducing aldosterone levels, which results in potassium retention. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) and tinnitus (Choice D) are also not typically associated with enalapril use.
A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical records of a group of older adults (OA). The provider should identify that which of the following is a risk factor that places OA at an increased risk for developing infections?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Lowered immune system function.' As individuals age, their immune system tends to weaken, making them more susceptible to infections. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because improved circulation and increased immune function would typically reduce the risk of infections, while dehydration can impact overall health but is not directly related to immune system function in the context of infection risk.
A nurse is assessing four clients for fluid balance. Which of the following clients is exhibiting manifestations of dehydration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because an elevated temperature is a common manifestation of dehydration. Choices A, B, and C are not indicative of dehydration. A urine specific gravity of 1.010 is within normal range, weight gain suggests fluid overload, and a hematocrit of 45% is also within normal limits and not specifically related to dehydration.
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which result should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: WBC 3,000/mm³. A WBC count of 3,000/mm³ indicates neutropenia, which is a condition characterized by a low level of white blood cells, specifically neutrophils. Neutropenia increases the risk of infection and requires immediate medical attention, especially in clients undergoing chemotherapy. Reporting this result to the provider promptly is crucial for further evaluation and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose an immediate risk to the client's health. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL, platelet count of 250,000/mm³, and serum sodium of 140 mEq/L are all normal values and would not typically require immediate reporting unless there are specific concerns related to the individual client's condition.
A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 4 mg/kg/day PO divided into 2 equal doses daily to a toddler who weighs 22 lb. How many mg should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the dosage per dose, first, convert the toddler's weight from pounds to kilograms: 22 lb / 2.2 = 10 kg. Then, multiply the weight by the dosage: 4 mg × 10 kg = 40 mg/day. Since this total daily dose is divided into 2 equal doses, the nurse should administer 20 mg per dose. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 mg. Choice B (15 mg) is incorrect because it does not account for the correct weight conversion and dosage calculation. Choice C (10 mg) is incorrect as it only considers the weight conversion but doesn't multiply it by the dosage. Choice D (30 mg) is incorrect as it miscalculates the dosage by not dividing the total daily dose into 2 equal parts.
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