Free ATI LPN Capstone practice for PN ATI Capstone Fundamentals Quiz (ATI LPN). Answer 48 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress
A nurse is completing an admission assessment for a client who has hearing loss. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when assessing a client with hearing loss is to use written communication. This method helps ensure effective communication and that the client understands the information being conveyed. Speaking loudly may not be helpful and can be perceived as rude. Avoiding eye contact can hinder communication and appear disrespectful. Using sign language without an interpreter may not be appropriate if the client does not understand sign language.
When teaching a client about the correct use of a cane, what should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When using a cane, it should be held on the stronger side to provide optimal support and stability. This positioning allows the cane to bear weight effectively and helps in improving balance. Option A about ensuring the cane has a rubber cap is important for preventing slipping but is not directly related to the correct use of the cane. Option C, flexing the elbow slightly, is a general guideline and may vary depending on the individual's height and the type of cane being used. Option D suggesting the use of a quad cane for increased support is not necessary if a standard cane is sufficient for the client's needs.
A patient is scheduled for cataract surgery but decides to cancel, stating 'I see just fine.' Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response is to encourage the patient to share more about their concerns. This approach helps the nurse understand the patient's perspective and allows for a supportive discussion. Choice A is dismissive and does not address the patient's feelings. Choice C may undermine the patient's autonomy and decision-making. Choice D suggests delaying without addressing the patient's current decision.
A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. What should the nurse identify as a sign of catheter occlusion?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Bladder distention is the correct sign of catheter occlusion. When a catheter is occluded, the urine cannot drain properly, leading to the buildup of urine in the bladder and subsequent distention. Frequent urination, dark urine, and increased thirst are not typical signs of catheter occlusion. Frequent urination can be a sign of conditions like urinary tract infection, dark urine may indicate dehydration or other issues, and increased thirst can be related to various factors like diabetes or medication side effects.
A nurse is teaching about foot care to a client who has diabetes mellitus (DM). What statement indicates understanding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Wearing slippers or shoes when out of bed is crucial for clients with diabetes as it protects the feet from injury. Walking barefoot, as mentioned in option B, can increase the risk of cuts, sores, and infections in diabetic patients. Applying lotion between the toes, as stated in option C, can lead to maceration and increase the risk of fungal infections. Similarly, soaking feet in warm water, as mentioned in option D, can cause skin breakdown and should be avoided by diabetic patients.
A nurse is performing a focused assessment for a client who has dysrhythmias. What indicates ineffective cardiac contractions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Pulse deficit. A pulse deficit is a significant finding in clients with dysrhythmias, indicating ineffective cardiac contractions. Pulse deficit occurs when there is a difference between the apical and radial pulses, suggesting that not all heart contractions are strong enough to produce a pulse that can be felt peripherally. Increased blood pressure (choice A) may occur due to various factors and is not a direct indicator of ineffective cardiac contractions. Similarly, a normal heart rate (choice C) and elevated oxygen saturation (choice D) do not specifically point towards ineffective cardiac contractions; they can be present in individuals with dysrhythmias but do not directly indicate ineffective cardiac contractions.
A nurse is performing a cultural assessment of a group of clients to maintain respect for their value systems and beliefs. Which of the following should the nurse identify as examples of cultural variables?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a cultural assessment, it is essential to consider various cultural variables that can impact communication and interactions. Eye contact, personal space, and touch are examples of cultural variables that can vary among different cultural groups. These variables influence how individuals perceive and engage in communication. Understanding and respecting these differences are crucial for effective and culturally sensitive care. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of them represents a cultural variable that should be considered during a cultural assessment.
A nurse is teaching a group of assistive personnel (AP) about the expected integumentary changes in older adults. Which should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Decrease in elasticity.' As individuals age, they typically experience a decrease in skin elasticity, leading to sagging skin and increased wrinkles. This change in elasticity can contribute to various skin-related issues such as pressure ulcers and delayed wound healing. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because older adults do not experience an increase in elasticity or moisture levels, and while there may be changes in pigmentation, the primary change related to aging in the integumentary system is a decrease in elasticity.
A nurse is preparing to perform a routine abdominal assessment for a client. Which action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Perform palpation after auscultation. When conducting an abdominal assessment, the correct sequence is inspection, auscultation, percussion, and then palpation. Inspecting the abdomen allows the nurse to observe any visible abnormalities, followed by listening for bowel sounds during auscultation. Percussion helps assess the density of abdominal contents before palpation for tenderness, masses, or organ enlargement. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because palpation should always come last in the sequence of an abdominal assessment.
A nurse is teaching about measures to promote sleep for a client with insomnia. What statement indicates understanding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Reducing fluid intake to 2-4 hours before sleeping helps prevent interruptions during the night, promoting better sleep. Watching TV in bed before sleeping (choice B) can actually hinder sleep due to the stimulation from screens. Taking long naps during the day (choice C) can disrupt the natural sleep-wake cycle. Exercising right before going to bed (choice D) can increase alertness and make it harder to fall asleep.
While assessing the IV infusion site of a client who reports pain at the site, a nurse notes redness and warmth along the vein. What should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The symptoms described indicate phlebitis, which is inflammation of the vein. In this case, the nurse should discontinue the infusion to prevent further complications. Continuing the infusion or increasing the rate can exacerbate the condition. Applying a cold compress is not recommended for phlebitis; instead, a warm compress can help alleviate discomfort.
A nurse is in the emergency department monitoring the hydration status of a client receiving oral rehydration. What should the nurse intervene for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A heart rate of 120/min may indicate dehydration or inadequate hydration, prompting the need for IV fluid replacement. Elevated heart rate is a sensitive indicator of dehydration as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output. Urine output of 30 mL/hour is within the normal range (30 mL/hour is the minimum acceptable urine output for an adult). Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range. Normal skin turgor is a positive sign indicating adequate hydration.
A healthcare provider is preparing to transfer a client from a chair to the bed. The client can bear partial weight and has upper body strength. Which device should the healthcare provider use?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A stand-assist lift is the most suitable device for transferring a client who can bear partial weight and has upper body strength. This device provides support and assistance for the client to stand up and transfer safely. Choice A, a wheelchair, is not designed for this purpose and is used for mobility. Choice C, a transfer belt, is helpful for providing stability during transfers but may not be sufficient for a client with partial weight-bearing. Choice D, a slide board, is more suitable for transferring clients who are unable to bear weight and need assistance for lateral transfers.
A healthcare professional is planning a community education program about colorectal cancer. Which of the following risk factors should the professional identify as modifiable?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Smoking. Smoking is a modifiable risk factor for colorectal cancer. It is within an individual's control to quit smoking, thereby reducing their risk of developing colorectal cancer. Choices A, C, and D are non-modifiable risk factors. Family history, age, and gender are factors that individuals cannot change or control. While family history can influence risk, it is not something that can be modified. Age and gender are also non-modifiable factors when it comes to colorectal cancer risk.
A charge nurse is making assignments for the upcoming shift. What assignment should the charge nurse give to an LPN?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct assignment for an LPN would be a client who has dehydration and inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). This choice is appropriate because it involves monitoring the client's condition, providing basic care, and assisting with activities of daily living, which align with the scope of practice for LPNs. Choices A, C, and D involve tasks that are more complex and require a higher level of nursing education and training, making them less suitable for an LPN.
A charge nurse discovers that a nurse did not notify the provider that a client's condition had changed. The charge nurse should identify that the nurse is accountable for which of the following torts?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Negligence. Negligence refers to the failure to take reasonable care or fulfill a duty, which can cause harm to others. In this scenario, the nurse's failure to notify the provider of a change in the client's condition constitutes negligence as it breaches the standard of care expected in healthcare practice. Choice A, Assault, involves the threat of harmful or offensive contact, which is not applicable in this situation. Choice B, Battery, refers to the intentional harmful or offensive touching of another person without their consent, which is also not relevant here. Choice D, False imprisonment, involves the intentional confinement or restraint of an individual against their will, which is not the issue described in the scenario. Therefore, the most appropriate tort in this case is negligence.
A healthcare professional is reviewing the lab report of a client who has been experiencing a fever for the last 3 days. What lab result indicates the client is experiencing fluid volume deficit (FVD)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An increased hematocrit level indicates dehydration or fluid volume deficit. Hematocrit measures the proportion of blood volume that is occupied by red blood cells, and when a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, there is less fluid in the blood, causing the concentration of red blood cells to be higher, leading to an increased hematocrit level. Decreased hematocrit (Choice A) is more indicative of fluid volume excess. Increased BUN (Choice B) is associated with renal function and dehydration but is not a direct indicator of FVD. Decreased urine specific gravity (Choice D) is also associated with dehydration, but an increased hematocrit is a more specific indicator of fluid volume deficit.
A nurse is caring for an older adult who has a nonpalpable skin lesion that is less than 0.5 cm (0.2 in) in diameter. Which of the following terms should the nurse use to document this finding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct term the nurse should use to document this finding is 'Macule.' A macule is a flat, nonpalpable skin lesion that is smaller than 1 cm in diameter. In this case, the lesion described is less than 0.5 cm, making it appropriate to classify it as a macule. 'Papule' (Choice A) refers to a solid, elevated skin lesion, 'Vesicle' (Choice B) is a small fluid-filled blister, and 'Nodule' (Choice D) is a solid, elevated skin lesion that is larger and deeper than a papule, none of which accurately describe the lesion in question.
A community health nurse is teaching a group of clients about first aid for different types of wounds. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because applying clean dressings over blood-saturated dressings and holding pressure helps prevent disruption of wound tissue, aiding in the clotting process and controlling bleeding. Choice B is incorrect as rinsing a wound with hot water can cause further tissue damage. Choice C is incorrect as the dressing should not be removed once applied as it can disrupt the formation of a clot. Choice D is incorrect as antibiotic ointment should not be applied directly to the wound during initial first aid.
A nurse is assisting with meal planning for a client who has been prescribed a mechanical soft diet. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following foods?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Orange slices. Orange slices contain membranes that are difficult to swallow, which can pose a risk to clients on a mechanical soft diet. This type of diet is designed for individuals who have difficulty chewing or swallowing. Choices A, B, and D are suitable for a mechanical soft diet as they are soft in texture and easy to chew and swallow.
A healthcare professional is assessing the pain level of a client who has dementia and difficulty communicating. Which pain assessment technique should the healthcare professional use?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For clients with dementia who have difficulty communicating, assessing pain using behavioral indicators like increased agitation and restlessness is more effective than relying on self-reported scales such as numeric rating scale, visual analog scale, or faces pain scale. Behavioral indicators provide valuable insights into pain perception in individuals who may have challenges expressing themselves verbally.
A nurse is reviewing the medical records of a group of older adult clients. The nurse should identify which of the following as a risk factor for developing infections?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Lowered immune system function. In older adults, a decline in immune system function increases the risk of developing infections. Increased physical activity (choice A) and proper nutrition (choice D) generally support immune function and overall health, reducing the risk of infections. Regular health screenings (choice C) are important for early detection of health issues but do not directly increase the risk of infections.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a narcotic medication. After administration, the nurse is left with an unused portion. What should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when left with an unused portion of a narcotic medication is to discard the medication with another nurse as a witness. This procedure ensures accountability and proper disposal of controlled substances. Choice A is incorrect as discarding in the trash can lead to potential misuse or environmental harm. Choice B is incorrect because returning controlled substances to the pharmacy is not the appropriate method for disposal. Choice D is incorrect as storing the medication for future use is not permitted with controlled substances.
A nurse in an acute care facility is caring for a client who is postop following abdominal surgery. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse identify as increasing the client's risk for constipation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Urge suppression can lead to constipation by delaying bowel movements and causing fecal impaction, especially in postoperative patients. Regular fluid intake (choice A) is important to prevent constipation by maintaining hydration and aiding in bowel movements. Increased physical activity (choice C) helps stimulate bowel function and prevent constipation. Adequate dietary fiber (choice D) is essential for promoting healthy bowel movements and preventing constipation. However, urge suppression (choice B) is the behavior that directly contributes to constipation in this scenario.
A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change for a client who has a surgical wound. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent contamination during the dressing change?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action to prevent contamination during a sterile dressing change is to restart the procedure if the sterile solution splashes onto the sterile field while pouring the solution into the dressing tray. Any contact with the sterile field by non-sterile items makes the field contaminated and requires restarting the procedure to maintain sterility. Choice A is incorrect because sterile gloves should always be used during a sterile procedure to prevent contamination. Choice C is incorrect as the dressing tray should be placed on a sterile surface, not on the client's bed, to maintain sterility. Choice D is also incorrect as talking during the procedure does not necessarily lead to contamination if proper aseptic technique is maintained.
A nurse is teaching a client about the use of a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Inhaling the medication deeply for 3-5 seconds and holding the breath for 10 seconds after inhalation ensures effective medication delivery to the lungs. Choice A is the correct instruction for the use of a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Choice B, exhaling forcefully before inhaling, is incorrect as it can lead to decreased medication delivery. Choice C, shaking the MDI vigorously before use, is also incorrect as excessive shaking can cause the medication to clump. Choice D, holding the mouthpiece 2.5-5 cm (1-2 in) in front of the mouth, is not recommended as it may lead to improper inhalation technique.
A nurse in a provider's office is assessing the motor skill development of a 15-month-old toddler during a well-child visit. What gross motor skills should the nurse expect to observe?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. At 15 months, toddlers typically walk independently but may do so with a wide stance for balance. Choice B, climbing stairs with assistance, is more common around 18 months. Choice C, running smoothly, is usually achieved around 2 years of age. Choice D, kicking a ball forward, generally develops around 2 to 3 years of age. Therefore, for a 15-month-old toddler, the nurse should expect the child to walk without assistance using a wide stance for balance.
A nurse is caring for a client who reports burning around the peripheral IV site. Which finding should the nurse identify as a manifestation of infiltration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Edema at the IV site indicates that IV solution has leaked into the extravascular tissue, which is a sign of infiltration. Redness, warmth, and pain at the site are more indicative of phlebitis, not infiltration. Phlebitis is characterized by redness, warmth, and pain along the vein where the IV is placed, while infiltration involves the leaking of IV fluids into the surrounding tissue.
When teaching about safety risks for adolescents, what should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When educating about safety risks for adolescents, it is crucial to address the impact of peer influence on engaging in high-risk behaviors, which can result in injuries. Choice A is incorrect because adolescents are known to sometimes take risks and not always follow rules. Choice C is incorrect as injuries among adolescents can also happen outside of sports activities. Choice D is incorrect as adolescents may not always be fully aware of the dangers of substance use.
While documenting client care, which of the following entries should the nurse identify as an example of implementing client care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering medications as prescribed is a clear example of implementing client care because it involves carrying out a specific aspect of the care plan. Contacting the provider to report client findings is more related to assessment and communication. Reviewing the client's lab results is part of assessment and data collection. Discussing the care plan with the family is focused on collaboration and planning, rather than direct implementation.
A client is found on the floor of their room experiencing a seizure. Which of the following actions is the priority for the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a seizure, the priority action for the nurse is to place the client on their side with their head forward. This position helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration, which is crucial in managing the client's safety during a seizure. Calling for help is important but ensuring the client's immediate safety by positioning them correctly takes precedence. Protecting the client's head can be done concurrently while positioning the client. Restraint is not appropriate during a seizure as it can lead to injuries and complications.
A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. The healthcare provider should identify what as a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Urinary incontinence is a significant risk factor for skin breakdown and pressure injuries. It can lead to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants, increasing the susceptibility to pressure injuries. Advanced age (Choice A) is a risk factor due to changes in skin integrity and decreased tissue viability, but it is not as direct a risk factor as urinary incontinence. Regular skin assessments (Choice C) are important for early detection and prevention but are not a risk factor themselves. Adequate hydration (Choice D) is essential for overall skin health but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries.
A nurse enters a client's room and sees smoke coming from the trash can. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to evacuate the room first. In a fire situation, the priority is safety, following the RACE protocol: Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish. Evacuating the room ensures the safety of both the client and the nurse. Closing the window (Choice A) can wait until after evacuation when there is no immediate danger. Calling the fire department (Choice C) is important but comes after ensuring personal safety and evacuating. Attempting to extinguish the fire (Choice D) is not recommended as it can put the nurse and the client at risk; firefighting should be left to professionals.
A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports a decrease in the effectiveness of their arthritis medication. Which of the following client information should the nurse identify as a contributing factor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Recurring bowel inflammation can decrease gastrointestinal motility, affecting the absorption of oral medications. This can lead to decreased effectiveness of the arthritis medication. Choice B is incorrect because increasing exercise would not typically impact the absorption of arthritis medication. Choice C is incorrect as herbal supplements may not directly affect the absorption of conventional arthritis medication. Choice D is also incorrect as stress, while it can impact overall health, is less likely to directly affect the effectiveness of arthritis medication compared to gastrointestinal issues.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a prescription for home oxygen. Which information should the nurse teach?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Wear cotton socks when the oxygen is in use.' This information is important as wearing cotton socks helps prevent static electricity, which can pose a fire risk when oxygen is in use. Choice A is incorrect as using a humidifier with oxygen is not necessary for all clients and may not be part of standard discharge teaching. Choice C is incorrect as it is a common safety measure to avoid all types of smoking materials when using oxygen. Choice D is incorrect as using a nasal cannula during meals is not specifically related to the safety concerns associated with home oxygen use.
A nurse receives a report from an assistive personnel that a client's BP is 160/95. What should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to recheck the client's BP. It is essential for the nurse to verify the accuracy of the initial reading by reassessing the blood pressure. Notifying the healthcare provider or administering antihypertensive medication should only occur after confirming the elevated blood pressure through a recheck. Documenting the findings is important but should follow the confirmation of the BP reading.
A client who signed an informed consent form for surgery but has since expressed doubts about the need for surgery is being assisted by a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because the nurse should encourage the client to express concerns and ensure that the surgeon addresses any questions prior to the procedure. Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's worries. Choice C is incorrect because it does not respect the client's autonomy in decision-making. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the client's doubts directly or provide reassurance.
A nurse is preparing a client for transfer to another unit. Which finding should the nurse include in the transfer report?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When preparing a client for transfer to another unit, the nurse should include all the findings mentioned in the choices in the transfer report. It is crucial to document the client's response to pain medication as it helps the receiving unit manage the client's pain effectively. Reviewing the ongoing discharge plan ensures that the client's care continues seamlessly after the transfer. Noting recent physical changes is vital for the receiving unit to monitor the client's condition accurately. Therefore, all of the above findings are essential for ensuring continuity of care and providing comprehensive information to the receiving unit.
A nurse is updating a plan of care after evaluating a client who has dysphagia. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for a client with dysphagia is to have them sit upright for 1 hour following meals. This position facilitates swallowing and reduces the risk of aspiration. Choice A is incorrect because having the client lie down after meals can increase the risk of aspiration. Choice B is incorrect as talking while eating can lead to choking. Choice D is incorrect as thin liquids may be harder for a client with dysphagia to swallow safely.
A nurse is admitting a client who has meningococcal meningitis. What should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The first priority when admitting a client with meningococcal meningitis is to initiate droplet precautions. This is essential to prevent the transmission of the infection to others, as meningococcal meningitis is highly contagious through respiratory droplets. Starting intravenous antibiotics or performing a complete assessment can follow, but the immediate concern is to implement infection control measures. Notifying the healthcare provider should also be done but is not the first action to take in this situation.
A client is reviewing information about advance directives with a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because having a living will indicates that the client understands and has documented their wishes regarding medical treatment when they are unable to make decisions. Choice A is incorrect because while it's true that clients can change their minds about advance directives, it doesn't specifically indicate an understanding of the teaching provided. Choice C is important but doesn't directly show if the client understands advance directives. Choice D is incorrect because it dismisses the importance of advance directives, indicating a lack of understanding.
A nurse is planning to administer several medications to a client through an NG tube. Which actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when administering medications through an NG tube is to dissolve crushed tablet medications in 15-30 mL of sterile water. This ensures proper delivery through the NG tube and reduces the risk of clogging. Choice A is incorrect because tap water may contain impurities that can cause complications. Choice B suggests using a higher volume of sterile water than necessary, which may lead to dilution of the medications. Choice D is incorrect as medications should be dissolved to prevent blockages in the NG tube.
A nurse is discussing immunity with a client who has received an immunization. The nurse should identify that an immunization functions as part of which of the following types of immunity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Immunizations provide acquired immunity. They work by introducing antigens into the body, which triggers the immune system to produce antibodies specific to that antigen. Choice A, 'Innate immunity,' refers to the natural defense mechanisms an organism is born with and does not involve immunizations. Choice B, 'Passive immunity,' is the transfer of pre-formed antibodies and does not involve immunizations. Choice D, 'Natural immunity,' is a general term that encompasses all immunity that is not acquired through deliberate immunization or passive transfer of antibodies.
When admitting a client with fever, confusion, and decreased level of consciousness, what should the nurse do first after obtaining the client's history and assessment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client presents with fever, confusion, and decreased level of consciousness, the first step should be to identify the client's needs. This involves recognizing any immediate concerns or issues that require urgent attention. Starting intravenous fluids, notifying the provider, or conducting a neurological assessment may be necessary actions but should come after identifying the client's needs to ensure proper prioritization of care.
A nurse is sitting with the partner of a client who recently died. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to facilitate mourning?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take to facilitate mourning is to encourage the partner to ask for help when needed. Grieving is a challenging process, and offering support and encouragement to seek help can be beneficial. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding discussing feelings can hinder the grieving process by suppressing emotions. Choice C is also incorrect as an immediate return to daily activities may not allow the partner to properly process their grief. Choice D is not the best approach as advising the partner to 'remain strong' may discourage the expression of emotions and seeking support, which are essential in the mourning process.
A nurse is monitoring a client who has been receiving intermittent enteral feedings. What should the nurse identify as an intolerance to the feeding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Nausea is a common sign of intolerance to enteral feedings. When a client experiences nausea, it can indicate difficulty in tolerating the feeding formula. This intolerance may also manifest as vomiting and dumping syndrome. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, weight gain, and regular bowel movements are not typical signs of intolerance to enteral feedings.
A client expresses anxiety about an upcoming surgery. What should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Asking the client to describe their feelings is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take. This allows the nurse to understand the specific concerns and anxieties the client is experiencing. Choice A may invalidate the client's feelings and not address the root cause of anxiety. Choice C may come across as dismissive and oversimplified. While providing information about the surgery (Choice D) is important, addressing the client's emotional state is the initial priority in this situation.
A nurse is performing a focused assessment on a client who has a history of COPD and is experiencing dyspnea. Which of the findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Flaring of the nostrils indicates increased respiratory effort, common in clients with dyspnea due to COPD. In COPD, the airways are narrowed, causing difficulty in breathing, leading to increased work of breathing. Normal respiratory rate and clear lung sounds are less likely findings in a client with COPD experiencing dyspnea. Decreased work of breathing is not expected in this situation as COPD typically results in increased work of breathing.
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