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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the heparin?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- C. Prothrombin time (PT)
- D. Bleeding time
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor heparin therapy. PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is specifically used to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy such as heparin. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range. Platelet count, Prothrombin time (PT), and Bleeding time are not specific laboratory values for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. Platelet count is more indicative of platelet function, PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, and Bleeding time assesses platelet function rather than the effect of heparin therapy.
2. A client at 38 weeks gestation with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 is being admitted. Which of the following questions is most appropriate to ask the client?
- A. Have your membranes ruptured?
- B. Do you have any active lesions?
- C. Are you positive for beta strep?
- D. How far apart are your contractions?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate question to ask a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 at 38 weeks gestation is whether they have any active lesions. Active herpes lesions during labor can necessitate a cesarean delivery to prevent neonatal transmission. Asking about ruptured membranes (choice A), beta strep status (choice C), or contraction timing (choice D) is important but not the priority when managing a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 due to the high risk of neonatal transmission.
3. What is the first action when a client who is admitted with schizophrenia reports hearing voices telling them to harm themselves?
- A. Administer antipsychotic medication
- B. Ask the client what the voices are saying
- C. Distract the client with another activity
- D. Call the healthcare provider
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action when a client with schizophrenia reports hearing voices telling them to harm themselves is to ask the client what the voices are saying. This is important to assess the content of the hallucinations and determine if there is any immediate danger or suicidal intent. Administering antipsychotic medication without knowing the content of the voices or the level of danger could be inappropriate and potentially harmful. Distracting the client with another activity may not address the underlying issue of the hallucinations commanding harm. Calling the healthcare provider can be done after assessing the situation and gathering information from the client.
4. A nurse is teaching a client with newly diagnosed hypertension about lifestyle changes. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse make?
- A. Limit sodium intake to 3,000 mg per day.
- B. Exercise for at least 30 minutes most days of the week.
- C. Drink no more than two alcoholic drinks per day.
- D. Increase fluid intake to at least 3 liters per day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Exercise for at least 30 minutes most days of the week.' Regular exercise, especially aerobic activity, is known to help lower blood pressure and should be included in lifestyle changes for managing hypertension. Choice A is incorrect because the recommended sodium intake for individuals with hypertension is usually lower than 3,000 mg per day. Choice C is incorrect as it is advisable to limit alcohol intake to one drink per day for women and two drinks per day for men. Choice D is incorrect because increasing fluid intake to 3 liters per day may not be necessary and could be harmful in some cases, depending on the individual's health status.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a vaginal birth. The client reports heavy bleeding and passing large clots. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?
- A. Administer oxytocin IV
- B. Perform fundal massage
- C. Check vital signs
- D. Encourage the client to void
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Performing fundal massage is the priority action to take in this situation. Fundal massage helps stimulate uterine contractions, which can reduce postpartum bleeding. Uterine atony, the most common cause of early postpartum hemorrhage, can be addressed effectively through fundal massage. Administering oxytocin IV, although important, should come after initiating fundal massage. Checking vital signs is also crucial but not the immediate priority. Encouraging the client to void does not directly address the heavy bleeding and passing of large clots; hence, it is not the priority action.
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