Free ATI LPN Capstone practice for PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B (ATI LPN). Answer 65 nursing exam-style questions with rationales,
A nurse is caring for a client who has end-stage osteoporosis and is reporting severe pain. The client's respiratory rate is 14 per minute. Which of the following medications should the nurse prioritize administering?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hydromorphone, an opioid, is the most appropriate option for managing severe pain in this context. Opioids provide fast-acting relief for acute pain associated with advanced osteoporosis. Promethazine (Choice A) is an antihistamine and not indicated for pain relief. Ketorolac (Choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that may increase the risk of bleeding and is not recommended for severe pain management. Amitriptyline (Choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant that is not the first-line treatment for severe acute pain.
A nurse is educating a client about caloric intake and weight reduction. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'If I eat 500 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.' This statement is accurate because a reduction of 500 calories per day typically results in a weight loss of 1 pound per week. This is based on the principle that a calorie deficit of 3,500 calories equals about 1 pound of body fat. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the established relationship between calorie reduction and weight loss. Eating 450 fewer calories per day would not lead to a weight loss of 2 pounds per week; similarly, reducing calories by 250 or 300 per day would not result in losing 2 pounds or 1 pound per week, respectively.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric (NG) tube and is receiving enteral feedings. The client reports feeling nauseated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client with a nasogastric tube reports feeling nauseated is to check the client's bowel sounds. This assessment helps the nurse evaluate for possible complications, such as a blockage or decreased gastric motility, that could be causing the nausea. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) should not be the first action without assessing the underlying cause of the nausea. Slowing the rate of the feeding (Choice C) may be appropriate but is not the priority until further assessment is done. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice D) is not typically indicated for managing nausea in this situation.
A patient is receiving chemotherapy and reports nausea. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct recommendation for a patient receiving chemotherapy and experiencing nausea is to suggest eating dry, bland foods like cereal. These types of foods are often better tolerated as they are less likely to trigger nausea compared to aromatic or hot foods. Drinking liquids between meals, as suggested in option B, can be helpful to prevent dehydration but may not specifically address the nausea. Eating foods with a strong aroma, as in option D, may actually worsen nausea in patients undergoing chemotherapy.
A community health nurse is reviewing information about infectious diseases with the nurses on her team. The nurse should remind the team that which of the following diseases is included in the list of nationally notifiable infectious diseases?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Gonorrhea. Gonorrhea is a reportable sexually transmitted disease, and healthcare providers must report cases to the CDC to track and prevent outbreaks. Influenza, Tuberculosis, and Hepatitis B are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases. Influenza is monitored for its epidemiology and impact on public health, but it is not classified as nationally notifiable. Tuberculosis and Hepatitis B are not included in the list of diseases that healthcare providers are required to report to public health authorities.
A nurse is caring for a client who had a stroke and is showing signs of dysphagia. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as an indication of this condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Abnormal movements of the mouth are a common indication of dysphagia, a condition that impairs swallowing function. In clients who have had a stroke, dysphagia can increase the risk of aspiration, leading to serious complications. Inability to stand without assistance (Choice B) is more indicative of motor deficits following a stroke rather than dysphagia. Paralysis of the right arm (Choice C) is a manifestation of hemiplegia, which is common in stroke but not directly related to dysphagia. Loss of appetite (Choice D) may occur in individuals with dysphagia but is not a direct indicator of the condition itself.
A nurse is reviewing information about advance directives with a newly admitted client. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice B is the correct answer because having a living will is a legal document that outlines a client's wishes when they are unable to make decisions, indicating a good understanding of advance directives. Choice A is incorrect because it doesn't mention a specific document like a living will. Choice C is incorrect because advance directives, like a living will, can be legally binding. Choice D is incorrect because planning for advance directives should ideally be done before a person becomes critically ill.
A nurse is assessing a 2-hour-old newborn for cold stress. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Jitteriness of the hands. Jitteriness is a key sign of cold stress in a newborn, indicating the need for immediate warming measures. A respiratory rate of 60/min may not be directly indicative of cold stress. Diaphoresis (excessive sweating) and bounding peripheral pulses are not typical findings associated with cold stress in newborns.
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is to administer lorazepam. Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, is commonly used to manage the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal by preventing seizures and reducing agitation and anxiety. Encouraging frequent ambulation (choice A) may not be safe during alcohol withdrawal due to potential instability and confusion. Providing a low-calorie diet (choice C) is not a priority during alcohol withdrawal, as the focus is on managing withdrawal symptoms. Administering insulin as prescribed (choice D) is unrelated to managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms.
When providing education on the use of insulin, what should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose levels before administration. This step is crucial to ensure the correct dose of insulin is administered based on the current blood glucose level. Choice A is incorrect as insulin usually needs to be stored in the refrigerator and has an expiration date. Choice C is incorrect because insulin can be short-acting, rapid-acting, intermediate-acting, or long-acting. Choice D is also incorrect as insulin can have side effects such as hypoglycemia if the dose is too high.
A nurse is administering insulin glulisine 10 units subcutaneously at 0730 to an adolescent client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. The nurse should anticipate the onset of action of the insulin at which of the following times?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Insulin glulisine has a rapid onset of action, typically around 15 minutes. Therefore, the nurse should expect the onset around 0745. Choice A is correct as it aligns with the expected onset time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the typical onset time of insulin glulisine.
A nurse overhears two assistive personnel (APs) discussing a client in a hospital cafeteria, using the client's name and discussing details of the diagnosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take first is to tell the APs to discontinue their conversation. By stopping the conversation immediately, the nurse addresses the breach of client confidentiality on the spot. This action is crucial to protect the client's privacy and confidentiality. While further steps such as reporting the behavior or providing education on confidentiality may be necessary, the immediate priority is to stop the inappropriate discussion. Reporting the behavior to the supervisor or completing an incident report can come after the immediate issue is addressed. Providing written documentation on confidentiality may be helpful but is not the most urgent action needed in this situation.
A charge nurse is planning care for a group of patients on a med-surg unit. What task should the nurse delegate to an assistive personnel?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because assistive personnel can be assigned to measure and document urinary output, a routine task within their scope of practice. Administering medications (choice B) requires a higher level of training and should be done by licensed nurses. Reinforcing patient education (choice C) involves providing information and ensuring patient understanding, which is typically done by licensed healthcare providers. Initiating a care plan (choice D) involves critical thinking and assessment skills, which are beyond the scope of practice for assistive personnel.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Elevating the leg promotes venous return and reduces swelling, which is crucial for clients with DVT. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge the clot and worsen the condition. Applying cold packs can cause vasoconstriction, potentially increasing the risk of clot formation. Keeping the leg dependent can impede circulation and increase the risk of clot migration.
A nurse is caring for a client with congestive heart failure. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, is commonly prescribed to manage hypertension and heart failure. It helps reduce the workload on the heart and prevent fluid retention. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Option A focuses on a respiratory rate, which is not specific to heart failure management. Option B suggests administering a large IV bolus of fluid, which can worsen heart failure by increasing fluid volume. Option D addresses the pulse rate, which is not a typical parameter to monitor for heart failure specifically.
A nurse is assessing a client who is 12 hours post-surgery. The client has an indwelling urinary catheter, and the nurse notes a urinary output of 15 mL/hr. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should first assess the patency of the catheter to ensure that the low output is not caused by a blockage. It is crucial to rule out any obstructions before considering other interventions. Irrigating the catheter without verifying patency may worsen the situation if there is a blockage. Increasing IV fluid rate may not address the underlying issue if the problem lies with the catheter. Notifying the provider should come after ensuring the catheter's patency.
A charge nurse is discussing HIPAA with a newly licensed nurse. Which action should the charge nurse include in the teaching as an example of a HIPAA violation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Emailing patient information from an unencrypted server violates HIPAA because it exposes sensitive health information to potential breaches. Choice A is not a violation as long as the fax is sent to the correct recipient. Choice C is not a violation if the discussion is done discreetly and within an appropriate setting. Choice D is a recommended practice to ensure patient information is kept secure.
A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has a new prescription for sertraline. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'I may experience difficulty sleeping while taking this medication.' Sertraline can cause insomnia, especially when first starting the medication, so the client should be aware of this potential side effect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because feeling better immediately, increased urination, and decreasing sodium intake are not commonly associated side effects of sertraline.
A client is being taught how to use crutches by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Support your weight on your hands.' When using crutches, it is important to support your weight on your hands rather than underarms to prevent injury to the axillary nerves and blood vessels. Placing weight on the underarms can lead to nerve damage and circulatory issues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Keeping the elbows extended when walking is important for stability, holding the crutches slightly in front of you allows for proper balance, and supporting weight on the hands maintains the correct weight-bearing position.
A nurse is assessing a client for signs of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Peripheral edema. Peripheral edema, the accumulation of fluid causing swelling in the extremities, is a classic sign of heart failure due to fluid overload. This occurs because the heart's reduced pumping efficiency leads to fluid backup in the circulatory system. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased heart rate is not typically associated with heart failure; instead, tachycardia or an increased heart rate may be observed. Increased energy levels are not an expected finding in heart failure, as this condition often causes fatigue and weakness. Hyperglycemia is not a direct sign of heart failure; however, it can be present in individuals with uncontrolled diabetes or as a result of certain treatments, but it is not a specific indicator of heart failure.
A nurse in an emergency department is serving on a committee that is reviewing the facility protocol for disaster readiness. The nurse should recommend that the protocol include which of the following as a clinical manifestation of smallpox?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, 'Rash in the mouth.' Smallpox presents with a distinctive rash that typically begins in the mouth and spreads to the rest of the body, developing into pustules. This rash is a key clinical manifestation of smallpox. This infectious disease is characterized by the rash, fever, and other systemic symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they are not associated with smallpox. Bloody diarrhea, ptosis of the eyelids, and descending paralysis are not typical clinical manifestations of smallpox.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of hyperglycemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Increased thirst is a classic symptom of hyperglycemia due to the body trying to eliminate excess glucose through urine, leading to dehydration and increased thirst. Weight gain, decreased urination, and fatigue are not typical signs of hyperglycemia. Weight gain is more commonly associated with conditions like hypothyroidism or fluid retention. Decreased urination is not a typical symptom of hyperglycemia, as high blood sugar levels usually lead to increased urination. Fatigue can be a symptom of hyperglycemia, but it is not as specific or characteristic as increased thirst.
What is the name of a legal document that instructs health care providers and family members about what life-sustaining treatment an individual wants if they are unable to make decisions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, 'Living will.' A living will is a legal document that outlines an individual's preferences for life-sustaining medical treatment if they become unable to make decisions. Choice A, 'Do Not Resuscitate,' specifically refers to a directive that instructs healthcare providers not to perform CPR. Choice B, 'Informed consent,' pertains to a patient's right to be informed about and consent to medical treatment. Choice D, 'Durable power of attorney for health care,' involves appointing someone to make healthcare decisions on behalf of an individual when they are unable to do so.
A client has been prescribed phenytoin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor to prevent toxicity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Serum phenytoin levels should be regularly monitored to prevent toxicity because the therapeutic range is narrow. Monitoring blood pressure (choice A), complete blood count (choice B), and liver function tests (choice D) are not directly related to preventing phenytoin toxicity.
A healthcare provider is caring for a patient and realizes they administered the wrong medication. What action should the healthcare provider take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The healthcare provider should first assess the patient to determine if any harm has occurred as a result of the medication error. Checking the patient's condition takes precedence as it allows for immediate intervention if necessary. Notifying the provider (choice A) can come later once the patient's condition is assessed. Reporting to the risk manager (choice B) and completing an incident report (choice D) are important steps but should follow the initial assessment of the patient to ensure timely and appropriate actions are taken.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has Alzheimer's disease and demonstrates confusion and wandering behavior. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to leave one side rail up on the client's bed. This action can help prevent falls while allowing the client to get up safely when needed, reducing the risk of injury from wandering. Placing the client in seclusion (Choice A) is not appropriate as it can lead to increased agitation and distress. Requesting restraints (Choice B) should be avoided as it can increase the risk of injuries and is not recommended for clients with Alzheimer's. Dimming the lighting (Choice C) may increase confusion and disorientation in clients with Alzheimer's disease.
A nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to elevate the affected leg while in bed. Elevating the leg helps reduce swelling and promotes venous return, aiding in the management of DVT. Positioning the affected leg below the heart can worsen the condition by increasing the risk of clot dislodgment. Massaging the affected extremity can also dislodge the clot and should be avoided. Cold compresses are not recommended as they can cause vasoconstriction, potentially worsening the condition.
A nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with schizophrenia. The nurse asks the client to interpret the following statement: "When the cat's away, the mice will play." The client responds, "The mice come out when the cat is not around." The nurse should document this finding as:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client's literal interpretation of the statement is an example of concrete thinking, a cognitive symptom often seen in schizophrenia where abstract thinking is impaired. Choice A, Echolalia, is the repetition of words spoken by others, which is not demonstrated in this scenario. Choice B, Associative looseness, refers to a disturbance in the logical progression of thoughts, leading to a disorganized thought process. Choice C, Neologisms, involves creating new words or phrases with unique meanings, which is not evident in the client's response.
A nurse is admitted to a psychiatric unit and fails to follow her medication regimen. What does this behavior indicate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, 'Lack of health literacy.' The nurse's inability to follow the medication regimen suggests she may lack health literacy, meaning she may not fully understand how to manage her own health care. Choice A, 'Early cognitive impairment,' is not supported by the information provided in the question as there is no mention of cognitive decline. Choice B, 'Lack of motivation,' is less likely as the behavior is more indicative of a knowledge deficit rather than a lack of drive. Choice D, 'Worsening health state,' is also less likely as the behavior described does not directly imply a worsening health condition but rather a misunderstanding or lack of knowledge on managing health.
A nurse is teaching a client about the use of duloxetine. Which of the following should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Monitor for liver function.' Duloxetine is an antidepressant medication, not an antipsychotic, so choice A is incorrect. One of the common side effects of duloxetine is weight gain, making choice B incorrect. Choice D, stating that duloxetine has no side effects, is inaccurate as all medications have the potential for side effects. Monitoring liver function is crucial with duloxetine because it can impact liver function, emphasizing the importance of regular checks to ensure the client's safety.
A client has been prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder. Which of the following should the nurse teach the client to monitor for signs of toxicity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Tremors. Lithium toxicity can present with symptoms such as tremors, nausea, and blurred vision. Tremors are a common early sign of lithium toxicity and should be monitored closely. While nausea and vomiting can also occur with lithium toxicity, tremors are more specific to lithium toxicity. Increased urination is not typically associated with lithium toxicity, and blurred vision is less common compared to tremors in this context.
A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of warfarin. Which of the following should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to check INR levels. Before administering warfarin, it is crucial to check the INR levels to ensure they are within the therapeutic range. This helps to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting. Choice B, administering it with food, is incorrect as warfarin should typically be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C, monitoring blood glucose, is unrelated to the administration of warfarin. Choice D, assessing liver function, is important but not the immediate action required before administering warfarin.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Hypotension. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hypotension, especially after the first dose. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because enalapril is not typically associated with ecchymosis, jaundice, or hypokalemia as common adverse effects. Therefore, the nurse should primarily monitor the client for signs of hypotension.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a narcotic medication. After administering, the nurse is left with an unused portion. What should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to discard the medication with another nurse as a witness. Controlled substances, such as narcotic medications, must be properly disposed of to prevent misuse or diversion. Having another nurse witness the disposal ensures accountability and follows proper protocols. Storing the unused medication for later use (Choice A) is unsafe and could lead to misuse. Discarding the medication in a regular trash bin (Choice B) is inappropriate as it does not ensure proper disposal of a controlled substance. Reporting the unused portion to the provider (Choice D) is not the immediate action needed for proper medication disposal.
A nurse is preparing to administer amoxicillin 250 mg liquid suspension PO every 8 hr to an older adult client. The amount available is amoxicillin 50 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the amount of amoxicillin in mL needed per dose, we can use the formula: 50 mg/mL = 250 mg / X mL. Cross multiply to solve for X: 50X = 250. Divide both sides by 50 to find X, which equals 5 mL per dose. Therefore, the nurse should administer 5 mL of amoxicillin per dose. Choice B, 6 mL, is incorrect as it does not match the calculated result. Choice C, 4 mL, is incorrect as it is too low based on the calculation. Choice D, 7 mL, is incorrect as it is too high based on the calculation.
A client is being taught about the use of levothyroxine. Which of the following should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When educating a client about levothyroxine, it is important to emphasize the need to monitor for signs of hyperthyroidism. Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach, preferably in the morning, to maximize its absorption. Choice A is incorrect as it should not be taken with food. Choice C is incorrect as levothyroxine is not a pain reliever. Choice D is incorrect as levothyroxine is usually taken in the morning.
A client with ulcerative colitis has a new prescription for sulfasalazine. What adverse effect should the client monitor for according to the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Jaundice. Sulfasalazine can lead to liver toxicity, making it essential to monitor for jaundice, a sign of liver dysfunction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, oral candidiasis, and sedation are not commonly associated with sulfasalazine use.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the healthcare professional include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Elevating the affected leg is a crucial intervention in the care of a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). This position helps reduce swelling and promotes venous return, which can alleviate symptoms associated with DVT. Applying ice packs (Choice A) may worsen the condition by causing vasoconstriction. Encouraging ambulation (Choice B) can dislodge the clot and lead to fatal complications. Massaging the affected area (Choice D) can also dislodge the clot and is contraindicated in DVT.
A client is being educated by a nurse about the use of carbidopa-levodopa. Which of the following should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to 'Monitor for dyskinesia.' Carbidopa-levodopa can cause dyskinesia as a side effect, characterized by involuntary movements. Monitoring for this side effect is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa helps manage symptoms of Parkinson's disease but does not cure it. Choice C is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Choice D is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa is not an opioid medication.
A charge nurse is teaching a new nurse how to clean surfaces contaminated with blood. Which agent should the charge nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Chlorine bleach is the most appropriate agent for disinfecting surfaces contaminated with blood. It is effective in killing a wide range of pathogens, including viruses. Hydrogen peroxide (Choice A) is not as effective as chlorine bleach for bloodborne pathogen disinfection. Chlorhexidine (Choice B) and isopropyl alcohol (Choice C) are more commonly used for skin antisepsis rather than surface disinfection, making them less suitable options in this scenario.
A nurse is caring for a client prescribed prednisone. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Prednisone is known to cause hyperglycemia by increasing blood glucose levels. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage any potential hyperglycemic effects of prednisone. While prednisone can also affect serum potassium levels and liver function, the priority monitoring parameter in this case is blood glucose levels. Monitoring heart rate is not directly associated with prednisone administration, making it a less relevant parameter to monitor in this scenario.
A nurse is caring for a client who has congestive heart failure. Which of the following prescriptions from the provider should the nurse anticipate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor commonly prescribed for clients with congestive heart failure to help reduce blood pressure and fluid overload. Option A is incorrect as in congestive heart failure, a lower respiratory rate could be a sign of worsening condition and needs immediate attention rather than waiting to call the provider. Option B is incorrect as administering a large IV bolus of sodium chloride could exacerbate fluid overload in a client with heart failure. Option D is incorrect as a pulse rate lower than 80/min may not necessarily indicate a problem in a client with congestive heart failure.
A nurse is assessing a client who is at risk for falls. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as increasing the client's risk of falling?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Recent history of dizziness. A recent history of dizziness significantly increases the risk of falling, as dizziness can impair balance and coordination. Having a normal gait (choice A) and 20/20 vision (choice C) are not factors that directly increase the risk of falling. Taking a multivitamin daily (choice D) does not inherently contribute to an increased risk of falling unless it causes dizziness as a side effect, which is not specified in the question.
A nurse is caring for an older adult who has a non-palpable skin lesion that is less than 0.5 cm in diameter. Which term should the nurse use to document this finding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Macule. A macule is a non-palpable skin lesion smaller than 1 cm in diameter. In this case, the skin lesion described is less than 0.5 cm, making it consistent with a macule. Vesicle (choice A) is a small blister filled with clear fluid, papule (choice C) is a solid, raised skin lesion less than 0.5 cm in diameter, and nodule (choice D) is a palpable, solid lesion larger than 0.5 cm in diameter. Therefore, choices A, C, and D describe skin lesions that do not match the characteristics of the lesion presented in the question.
A nurse is performing a dressing change for a client who has a sacral wound using negative pressure wound therapy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to determine the client's pain level first. Assessing the client's pain is crucial before proceeding with any procedure, including dressing changes. This step ensures that appropriate pain management measures can be implemented, making the wound care process as comfortable as possible for the patient. Applying skin preparation to wound edges (choice A) can come after addressing the pain. While cleansing the wound with normal saline (choice B) and donning sterile gloves (choice C) are important steps in wound care, they should follow the assessment of the client's pain level to prioritize the patient's comfort and well-being.
A client with lactose intolerance needs to increase calcium intake. Which food should the nurse recommend?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Spinach is a suitable choice to recommend for increasing calcium intake to a client with lactose intolerance. Spinach is a good non-dairy source of calcium. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots are not significant sources of calcium. Peanut butter is high in protein and fats, ground beef is a source of protein and iron, and carrots are rich in vitamin A and fiber, but none of these choices provide a substantial amount of calcium.
A nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Fluid overload. Clients with chronic kidney disease are prone to fluid overload due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys may not effectively regulate fluid balance, leading to fluid retention. Monitoring for signs of fluid overload, such as edema, hypertension, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hypokalemia, is less likely in chronic kidney disease as the kidneys often have difficulty excreting potassium, leading to hyperkalemia. Decreased blood pressure (Choice C) is not a common finding in chronic kidney disease unless complications like volume depletion occur. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease; in fact, many clients may experience a decreased appetite due to various factors such as uremia and dietary restrictions.
Which of the following are contraindications to salicylic acid therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Third trimester of pregnancy. Salicylic acid is contraindicated during the third trimester of pregnancy due to the risk of complications for both the mother and the fetus. Thrombocytopenia (choice B) is not a contraindication to salicylic acid therapy. Coronary artery disease (choice C) is not a specific contraindication to salicylic acid therapy. However, caution should be exercised in patients with coronary artery disease due to the antiplatelet effects of salicylic acid. Adolescents with chickenpox (choice D) should not be given salicylic acid due to the risk of Reye Syndrome, a rare but serious illness.
A client has been prescribed nitroglycerin for chest pain. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Nitroglycerin tablets should be stored in a cool, dark place to maintain their potency. Storing them correctly ensures that they remain effective when needed. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking one tablet every hour is not the correct dosing regimen for nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is usually taken as needed at the onset of chest pain, with specific instructions from the healthcare provider. Taking nitroglycerin with food or antacids is not necessary, as it is usually placed under the tongue for rapid absorption.
A client is being educated about the use of spironolactone. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Avoid potassium-rich foods. Spironolactone can lead to hyperkalemia, a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. To prevent this complication, clients taking spironolactone should avoid potassium-rich foods. Choice B is incorrect because spironolactone can be taken with or without food. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use, as toxicity monitoring is not a specific concern with this medication. Choice D is incorrect because discontinuing the medication solely based on elevated potassium levels may not be necessary; instead, dosage adjustments or potassium restriction are often more appropriate.
A nurse is caring for an infant who has a prescription for continuous pulse oximetry. Which of the following is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to move the probe site every 3 hours. This action helps prevent skin breakdown and ensures more accurate monitoring of oxygen saturation. Placing the infant under a radiant warmer (choice A) is unnecessary and not related to pulse oximetry. Heating the skin before placing the probe (choice C) can lead to burns and is not recommended. Placing the sensor on the index finger (choice D) is not appropriate for continuous monitoring in infants.
A client in respiratory distress who is on oxygen is being cared for by a nurse. What is the most appropriate short-term goal?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because maintaining oxygen saturation of 90% is a specific, measurable short-term goal that ensures adequate oxygenation. Choice A is not a goal focused on the client's physiological status but rather on the equipment. Choice B is related to activities of daily living and does not address the respiratory distress issue. Choice C is subjective and may not reflect the actual physiological improvement in the client's condition.
A client diagnosed with pneumonia is receiving oxygen therapy at 4 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following interventions is most important?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Monitoring oxygen saturation levels is the most important intervention in this scenario. It ensures that the client is receiving adequate oxygenation, which is crucial for a client with pneumonia. By monitoring saturation levels, the nurse can promptly identify any oxygenation issues and adjust the oxygen delivery if necessary. Encouraging fluid intake, changing oxygen tubing daily, and assisting with frequent position changes are also important aspects of care for a client with pneumonia, but they are not as critical as monitoring oxygen saturation levels in ensuring immediate respiratory support.
A client with chronic kidney disease is about to start hemodialysis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to instruct the client to reduce potassium intake. Clients with chronic kidney disease should limit potassium intake to prevent hyperkalemia, as the kidneys may struggle to remove excess potassium. Increasing protein intake between dialysis sessions (Choice A) is not recommended as it can increase urea production, adding to the workload of the kidneys. Avoiding iron supplements (Choice C) is not necessary unless iron levels are high. Expecting weight gain after each dialysis session (Choice D) is incorrect as patients typically experience weight loss due to fluid removal during dialysis.
A nurse is caring for a client prescribed hydromorphone for severe pain. The client's respiratory rate has decreased from 16 breaths per minute to 6. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Naloxone is the correct answer. Naloxone is the antidote for opioid overdose, including hydromorphone. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, and a significant decrease in respiratory rate from 16 to 6 breaths per minute indicates respiratory compromise. Naloxone should be administered promptly to reverse the effects of the opioid and restore normal respiratory function. Flumazenil (Choice B) is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines, not opioids. Activated charcoal (Choice C) is used for gastrointestinal decontamination in cases of overdose with certain substances, but it is not the appropriate intervention for opioid-induced respiratory depression. Aluminum hydroxide (Choice D) is an antacid and has no role in managing opioid overdose or respiratory depression.
A nurse is teaching a client who is lactose intolerant about dietary choices. Which food should the nurse recommend to increase calcium intake?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Spinach. Spinach is rich in calcium, making it a suitable choice for individuals with lactose intolerance who need to avoid dairy products. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots are not significant sources of calcium compared to spinach, and therefore, not the best recommendation for increasing calcium intake in lactose-intolerant individuals.
A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide to a client who has a prescription. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. There is no need to limit fish intake with furosemide, indicating a misunderstanding of dietary restrictions. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body get rid of excess water and salt. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate actions for a client taking furosemide. Taking morning pills with food or milk can help reduce stomach upset, weighing oneself daily helps monitor fluid retention, and notifying the nurse about muscle cramps can be important due to potential electrolyte imbalances.
A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is being taught about the signs of preterm labor. Which of the following should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Regular contractions. Regular contractions before 37 weeks of gestation are a significant sign of preterm labor. It is essential for clients to be aware of this symptom and report it promptly to their healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sudden weight loss, shortness of breath, and vaginal spotting are not typical signs of preterm labor. Teaching clients about the specific signs of preterm labor can help in early detection and intervention, ultimately improving outcomes for both the client and the baby.
A nurse is completing a dietary assessment for a client who observes kosher dietary practices. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Meat and dairy products are eaten separately.' In kosher dietary practices, it is essential to keep meat and dairy products separate. Mixing meat and dairy is prohibited, and there are specific guidelines for the preparation and consumption of each. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is wrong because leavened bread is not eaten during Passover in kosher practices. Choice B is incorrect as shellfish is not consumed in a kosher diet. Choice D is also inaccurate as fasting from meat does not occur during Hanukkah in kosher dietary practices.
A client with congestive heart failure taking digoxin reports nausea and refuses to eat breakfast. Which action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take first is to check the client's apical pulse. Nausea can be a sign of digoxin toxicity, and one of the early signs of digoxin toxicity is changes in the pulse rate. By checking the client's apical pulse, the nurse can assess if the digoxin level is too high. Encouraging the client to eat or administering an antiemetic may not address the underlying issue of digoxin toxicity. While informing the provider is important, assessing the client's condition through checking the apical pulse should be the immediate priority.
A nurse is monitoring a client during an IV urography procedure. Which of the following client reports is the priority finding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Swollen lips indicate a potential allergic reaction or anaphylaxis to the contrast dye used during the procedure, which requires immediate medical intervention. Abdominal fullness and metallic taste are common side effects of IV urography and can be managed without urgent intervention. Feeling flushed and warm may also be a common reaction during the procedure and does not indicate a life-threatening situation like an allergic reaction.
A nurse is using Naegele's rule to calculate the expected delivery date for a client whose last menstrual period was in October. What is the expected date?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Using Naegele's rule, to calculate the expected delivery date, you add one year, subtract three months, and add seven days to the first day of the last menstrual period. If the last menstrual period was in October, adding one year gives October of the following year. Subtracting three months gives July, and adding seven days gives the expected delivery date of July 11th. Therefore, the correct answer is 711. Choice B (1011) is incorrect as it doesn't follow Naegele's rule calculations. Choices C (411) and D (1211) are also incorrect as they do not align with the correct application of Naegele's rule.
When planning to discharge a client receiving home oxygen therapy, which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to ensure that electrical cords are not frayed. Frayed electrical cords pose a fire hazard when oxygen is in use. Keeping oxygen tanks in a horizontal position (Choice B) is important to prevent leaks but is not the priority compared to fire safety. Storing extra oxygen tanks in a closed closet (Choice C) is also important but not as immediate as preventing fire hazards. Applying petroleum-based gel to the inside of the nostrils (Choice D) is unrelated to oxygen therapy safety and is not recommended.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values for a client who is receiving a continuous IV heparin infusion and has an aPTT of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse prepare to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An aPTT of 90 seconds is elevated, indicating a risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The appropriate action is to reduce the infusion rate of heparin to prevent further complications. Administering vitamin K is not indicated for an elevated aPTT due to heparin therapy. Giving the client a low-dose aspirin can further increase the risk of bleeding when combined with heparin. Requesting an INR is not necessary for monitoring heparin therapy; aPTT is the more specific test for assessing heparin's therapeutic effect. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to prepare to take is to reduce the infusion rate of heparin.
A nurse receives a change-of-shift report. Which of the following clients should the nurse attend to first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Cool feet bilaterally in a client with a long leg cast may indicate compromised circulation, which is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention. Choices A, B, and D do not present immediate life-threatening conditions. Tingling in the fingers following a thyroidectomy may indicate hypocalcemia but does not require immediate attention. Dark, foul-smelling urine with decreased urine output indicates a possible urinary tract infection or dehydration but can be addressed after attending to the client with compromised circulation. A productive cough and a normal oral temperature do not suggest an urgent condition compared to compromised circulation in a client with a long leg cast.
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