pn ati capstone proctored comprehensive assessment form b PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B - Nursing Elites
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis (TB). The client has a productive cough and is started on airborne precautions. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to wear an N95 respirator mask when caring for the client with TB. This is crucial to prevent the nurse from inhaling the airborne particles that spread the infection. Choice B is incorrect because placing the client in a semi-private room does not address the protection of the nurse. Choice C is incorrect as having the client wear a surgical mask during meals is not sufficient to protect the nurse during all interactions. Choice D is incorrect as using a negative pressure air filtration system is more applicable to airborne infection isolation rooms in healthcare settings and not a standard intervention for nurses caring for a single client with TB.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which finding indicates decreased cardiac output?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oliguria. Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not receiving enough blood to produce an adequate amount of urine. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia or the body's attempt to generate heat. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not directly related to cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) are more indicative of conditions affecting the nervous system or medications.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is about to start hemodialysis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to reduce potassium intake. Clients with chronic kidney disease should limit potassium intake to prevent hyperkalemia, as the kidneys may struggle to remove excess potassium. Increasing protein intake between dialysis sessions (Choice A) is not recommended as it can increase urea production, adding to the workload of the kidneys. Avoiding iron supplements (Choice C) is not necessary unless iron levels are high. Expecting weight gain after each dialysis session (Choice D) is incorrect as patients typically experience weight loss due to fluid removal during dialysis.

4. A client has been prescribed ferrous sulfate. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide to a client prescribed ferrous sulfate is to take it with fluids other than coffee or tea. Coffee and tea can inhibit iron absorption. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding strawberries, citrus fruits, and melon is not necessary for improving absorption of ferrous sulfate, taking it on a full stomach is not recommended, and doubling the dose if a dose is missed can lead to an overdose.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with a prescription for ferrous sulfate. What instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate is to take it with fluids other than coffee or tea. Coffee and tea can hinder iron absorption, so it's important to take the medication with other types of fluids. Choice A is incorrect because strawberries and citrus fruits are sources of vitamin C, which actually enhance iron absorption. Choice C is incorrect because ferrous sulfate is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. Choice D is incorrect as doubling the dose of ferrous sulfate can lead to an overdose and severe side effects.

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ATI TEAS 7 Exam Overview

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