ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is taking digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a sign of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypotension
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a cardiac glycoside, can lead to toxicity manifesting as bradycardia due to its effect on the heart's electrical conduction system. Tachycardia (choice B) is not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Hypotension (choice C) and hyperkalemia (choice D) are not direct signs of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is bradycardia.
2. A client with hyperlipidemia is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should increase my intake of foods high in saturated fats.
- B. I should decrease my intake of foods high in cholesterol.
- C. I should increase my intake of foods high in trans fats.
- D. I should decrease my intake of foods high in fiber.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. In hyperlipidemia management, decreasing the intake of foods high in cholesterol is crucial to improve lipid levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases. Choices A and C are incorrect as increasing intake of saturated fats or trans fats can raise cholesterol levels, worsening the condition. Choice D is incorrect because decreasing intake of foods high in fiber is not recommended as fiber-rich foods are beneficial for heart health, which is important in managing hyperlipidemia.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Position the client with the affected extremity lower than the heart
- B. Administer acetaminophen for pain
- C. Massage the affected extremity every 4 hours
- D. Withhold heparin IV infusion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Withholding heparin IV infusion is the priority if there is a risk of complications such as bleeding, which must be evaluated before continuing treatment.
4. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Elevated blood pressure.
- B. Absence of adventitious breath sounds.
- C. Weight gain of 1.4 kg (3 lb) in 24 hr.
- D. Decreased urine output.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.
5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe preeclampsia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider anticipate administering?
- A. Magnesium sulfate
- B. Oxytocin
- C. Misoprostol
- D. Nifedipine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the correct answer as it is administered to prevent seizures in clients with severe preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and is the first-line treatment for eclampsia prevention. Oxytocin (Choice B) is used to induce or augment labor, not indicated specifically for preeclampsia. Misoprostol (Choice C) is used for labor induction and postpartum hemorrhage, not typically indicated for preeclampsia. Nifedipine (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for managing hypertension in pregnancy but is not the first-line treatment for preventing seizures in severe preeclampsia.
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