Free Maternal Newborn Nursing practice for ATI Maternal Newborn (ATI LPN). Answer 37 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress track
A client at 40 weeks of gestation is experiencing contractions every 3 to 5 minutes, becoming stronger. A vaginal exam by the registered nurse reveals the client's cervix is 3 cm dilated, 80% effaced, and -1 station. The client requests pain medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse prepare to take? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During labor, effective pain management is crucial. The nurse should assist the client with patterned breathing techniques to help manage pain and administer opioid analgesic medication as ordered. Providing ice chips is a comfort measure but does not directly address pain relief. Inserting a urinary catheter is not typically indicated at this stage of labor unless there are specific medical indications, such as the need to closely monitor urine output. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to prepare to take in this scenario is to administer opioid analgesic medication.
A caregiver is being taught about bottle feeding a newborn. Which of the following statements by the caregiver indicates a need for further instruction?
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Explanation:
Tilting the bottle to prevent air from entering as the baby sucks can lead to the baby swallowing air, causing discomfort and potential issues like colic or gas. The correct way to bottle-feed a newborn is by ensuring that the nipple is always filled with milk to avoid air intake, which can lead to problems. Keeping the baby's head elevated while feeding helps prevent choking, allowing the baby to burp several times during each feeding helps release swallowed air, and soft, formed yellow stools indicate a healthy digestion process in newborns.
A full-term newborn is being assessed by a nurse 15 minutes after birth. Which of the following findings requires intervention by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A newborn's respiratory rate can vary between 20 to 100 breaths per minute during the initial phase after birth. A respiratory rate as low as 18 breaths per minute at this early stage requires immediate nursing intervention. This finding necessitates further assessment to ensure adequate oxygenation and respiratory function. The other options, heart rate of 168/min, tremors, and fine crackles, are within normal limits for a full-term newborn and do not require immediate intervention.
A client at 28 weeks of gestation received terbutaline. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication that works by relaxing the uterine muscles, leading to weakened uterine contractions. This effect helps to prevent preterm labor. Therefore, the nurse should expect weakened uterine contractions in a client who has received terbutaline at 28 weeks of gestation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Terbutaline administration would not directly affect the fetal heart rate, enhance fetal lung surfactant production, or cause maternal hypoglycemia.
A client who is 6 hours postpartum and Rh-negative has an Rh-positive newborn. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the healthcare provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The indirect Coombs test is performed to detect Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. In cases where the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, the mother may develop antibodies against the baby's blood cells, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. Choice A is incorrect because kernicterus is a complication of severe jaundice, not directly assessed by the indirect Coombs test. Choice B is incorrect as the test aims to detect Rh-positive antibodies, not Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. Choice D is incorrect as the test is focused on detecting antibodies in the mother's blood, not the newborn's.
When discussing intermittent fetal heart monitoring with a newly licensed nurse, which statement should a nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When discussing intermittent fetal heart monitoring, it is crucial to count the fetal heart rate after a contraction to determine baseline changes. This practice allows for the assessment of variations in the fetal heart rate pattern associated with uterine contractions. Monitoring the fetal heart rate after contractions provides valuable insights into fetal well-being and potential distress. Option A is incorrect because determining the baseline involves assessing the fetal heart rate over a more extended period. Option B is incorrect as auscultation every 5 minutes during the active phase of the first stage of labor is too frequent for intermittent monitoring. Option D is incorrect as auscultating the fetal heart rate every 30 minutes during the second stage of labor is too infrequent for proper monitoring of fetal well-being.
A client presents with uterine hypotonicity and postpartum hemorrhage. Which action should the nurse prioritize?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with uterine hypotonicity and postpartum hemorrhage, the priority is to address the risk of hypovolemic shock, which can lead to vital organ perfusion compromise and potentially death. Massaging the client's fundus helps to control bleeding by promoting uterine contraction and reducing blood loss, making it the nurse's priority intervention in this situation. Checking capillary refill may be important in assessing perfusion status but is not the priority over controlling the hemorrhage. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the priority in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Although preparing for a blood transfusion may be necessary, addressing the primary cause of bleeding by massaging the fundus takes precedence to stabilize the client's condition.
An adolescent is being taught about levonorgestrel contraception by a school nurse. What information should the nurse include in the teaching?
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Explanation:
Levonorgestrel is an emergency contraceptive that works by inhibiting ovulation to prevent conception. It is most effective when taken as soon as possible within 72 hours following unprotected sexual intercourse. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the adolescent to take the medication promptly to maximize its effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because levonorgestrel can be used even if the individual is on oral contraceptives. Choice C is incorrect as the efficacy of levonorgestrel is not determined by the onset of menstruation. Choice D is incorrect because levonorgestrel is a single-dose emergency contraceptive and does not provide protection for 14 days after ingestion.
During newborn gestational age assessment, which finding should be recorded as part of this assessment on the newborn?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Plantar creases covering 2/3 of the sole is an important physical characteristic used to assess gestational age in a newborn. This finding is significant because as gestational age advances, the plantar creases cover a larger portion of the sole. It is a valuable clue to the healthcare provider in determining the newborn's maturity level. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically relate to gestational age assessment. Acrocyanosis and vernix caseosa are common findings in newborns but are not directly used for determining gestational age. The softness and level of the anterior fontanel can provide information about intracranial pressure but are not directly related to gestational age assessment.
A client who is pregnant and has phenylketonuria (PKU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to eliminate from her diet?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Individuals with phenylketonuria (PKU) have difficulty breaking down phenylalanine, an amino acid found in protein-rich foods like peanut butter. Therefore, clients with PKU should avoid foods high in phenylalanine, such as peanut butter, to prevent adverse effects on their health. Choices B, C, and D are not typically high in phenylalanine and do not pose the same risk to individuals with PKU as peanut butter.
A healthcare professional is discussing risk factors for urinary tract infections with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following conditions should the healthcare professional include in the teaching? (Select all that apply)
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Explanation:
Urinary tract infections can be influenced by various factors. Epidural anesthesia, urinary bladder catheterization, and frequent pelvic examinations are all associated with an increased risk of UTIs. Epidural anesthesia can introduce bacteria into the urinary tract, urinary bladder catheterization can serve as a pathway for bacteria to enter the bladder, and frequent pelvic examinations can disrupt the natural flora and introduce bacteria. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to be aware of these risk factors to help prevent and manage UTIs effectively. Choice D, 'All of the Above,' is the correct answer as all the listed conditions are significant risk factors for urinary tract infections. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of them, when present, can contribute to the development of UTIs. It is essential for healthcare professionals to educate patients and colleagues about these risk factors to minimize the occurrence of UTIs.
A client in active labor is being prepared for epidural analgesia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Obtaining a 30-minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip prior to epidural analgesia is crucial to establish a baseline for fetal heart rate and uterine activity. This baseline helps in monitoring fetal well-being during labor and assessing the effect of analgesia on the baby. It enables the healthcare team to identify any changes in the fetal heart rate pattern and uterine contractions, ensuring the safety of both the mother and the baby. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because having the client sit upright with legs crossed is not necessary for epidural placement, administering a bolus of lactated Ringer's solution is not typically done before epidural analgesia, and the duration of the anesthetic effect varies and is not accurately 2 hours.
A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a prescription for a nonstress test is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement the nurse should include in the teaching is that the client will be offered orange juice to drink during the nonstress test. This is because offering the client orange juice, or another beverage high in glucose, will help stimulate the fetus during the procedure, aiding in obtaining accurate results. Choice A is incorrect because IV fluid is not typically administered before a nonstress test. Choice B is incorrect as the procedure usually takes around 20 to 40 minutes. Choice D is incorrect as informed consent is typically obtained once for the procedure, not before each individual test.
A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who reports abrupt, sharp, right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. The client states, 'I missed one menstrual cycle and cannot be pregnant because I have an intrauterine device.' The nurse should suspect which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Ectopic pregnancy should be suspected in clients with abrupt, sharp, right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding, especially if they have an intrauterine device (IUD). In this case, the client's symptoms are classic for ectopic pregnancy, where the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, commonly in the fallopian tube. Missed abortion (choice A) refers to a nonviable embryo or fetus in the uterus, which is not consistent with the client's presentation. Severe preeclampsia (choice C) is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, not the symptoms described. Hydatidiform mole (choice D) presents with vaginal bleeding but typically lacks abdominal pain and is not related to the presence of an IUD.
A client in a prenatal clinic is pregnant and experiencing episodes of maternal hypotension. The client asks the nurse what causes these episodes. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Maternal hypotension during pregnancy is often caused by the weight of the uterus pressing on the vena cava when the client is lying on her back, which reduces blood flow to the heart. This compression can lead to a decrease in blood pressure and subsequent symptoms of hypotension. Choice A is incorrect because an increase in blood volume typically leads to increased blood pressure rather than hypotension. Choice B is incorrect as pressure from the uterus on the diaphragm is not a common cause of maternal hypotension. Choice D is incorrect because increased cardiac output would not directly cause maternal hypotension.
A newborn who was born at 38 weeks of gestation, weighs 3,200 g, and is in the 60th percentile for weight should be classified as which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The classification of a newborn as appropriate for gestational age is determined by considering the weight and gestational age. In this case, the newborn's weight falls within the normal range for the gestational age, indicating that the newborn is appropriately sized for the length of time spent in the womb. Choice A, 'Low birth weight,' is incorrect as the newborn's weight is within the normal range. Choice C, 'Small for gestational age,' is incorrect because the newborn's weight is not below the 10th percentile for gestational age. Choice D, 'Large for gestational age,' is incorrect as the newborn's weight is not above the 90th percentile, rather falling within the 60th percentile which is considered normal.
A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn 1 hr after birth. Which of the following respiratory rates is within the expected reference range for a newborn?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The expected respiratory rate for a newborn is between 30 to 60 breaths per minute. A rate of 48 breaths per minute falls within this range, indicating normal respiratory function for a newborn. Choice A (22/min) is below the expected range, Choices C (100/min) and D (110/min) are above the expected range for a newborn's respiratory rate.
A client in the antepartum unit is at 36 weeks of gestation and has pregnancy-induced hypertension. Suddenly, the client reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The nurse should suspect which of the following complications?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Abruptio placentae is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, which can cause continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. In this scenario, the client's symptoms of sudden abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding are indicative of abruptio placentae, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent potential complications for both the client and the fetus. Placenta previa is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, not sudden abdominal pain. Prolapsed cord presents with visible umbilical cord protruding from the vagina and is not associated with abruptio placentae symptoms. Incompetent cervix typically manifests as painless cervical dilation in the second trimester, not sudden abdominal pain and bleeding as seen in abruptio placentae.
When reinforcing discharge teaching to the parents of a newborn regarding circumcision care, which statement made by a parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because cleaning the penis with each diaper change is essential for preventing infection and promoting healing after circumcision. This practice helps maintain good hygiene and reduces the risk of complications. Removing the yellow mucus or giving a tub bath too soon can interfere with the healing process and increase the likelihood of infection. Choice A is incorrect because circumcision healing usually takes about a week or more, not just a couple of days. Choice B is incorrect because parents should gently clean the area, including removing any discharge or debris as part of proper care. Choice D is incorrect because tub baths should be avoided until the circumcision is fully healed to prevent infection.
A client gave birth 2 hours ago, and their blood pressure is 60/50 mm Hg. What action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing the firmness of the uterus is crucial in this situation. A uterus that is not firm could indicate postpartum hemorrhage, a common cause of low blood pressure after childbirth. By evaluating the firmness of the uterus, the nurse can quickly identify and address potential complications, such as excessive bleeding. Initiating oxygen therapy, administering oxytocin infusion, or obtaining a type and crossmatch may be necessary interventions later, but assessing the firmness of the uterus takes precedence as the first step in managing postpartum complications.
A nurse is admitting a term newborn following a cesarean birth. The nurse observes that the newborn's skin is slightly yellow. This finding indicates the newborn is experiencing a complication related to which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The yellow skin observed in the newborn suggests jaundice. Maternal/newborn blood group incompatibility is a common cause of jaundice in newborns. This occurs when the mother and baby have different blood types, leading to the baby's immune system attacking the red blood cells, causing jaundice. Physiologic jaundice, which is a normal process due to the breakdown of red blood cells in newborns, typically presents after the first 24 hours of life. Absence of vitamin K leads to bleeding issues, not jaundice. Maternal cocaine abuse does not directly cause jaundice in newborns.
When reinforcing teaching with new parents on bathing a newborn, a nurse observes a bluish-brown marking across the newborn's lower back. Which of the following statements should the nurse make concerning the variation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A bluish-brown marking across the lower back is more commonly seen in newborns with dark skin. These markings are known as Mongolian spots and are benign. They are not related to hyperbilirubinemia, forceps marks, or trauma during delivery. Choice B is incorrect because hyperbilirubinemia presents as jaundice, not as a bluish-brown marking. Choice C is incorrect because forceps marks would have a different appearance and location. Choice D is incorrect as Mongolian spots are not related to prolonged birth or trauma during delivery.
When caring for a client in labor, which of the following infections can be treated during labor or immediately following birth? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Infections such as gonorrhea, chlamydia, and HIV can be treated during labor or immediately following birth to prevent transmission to the newborn. It is crucial to identify and treat these infections promptly to reduce the risk of vertical transmission to the infant. Therefore, all the given options are correct as they can be treated during labor or immediately following birth to prevent transmission to the newborn. Other choices are incorrect because only gonorrhea, chlamydia, and HIV can be effectively treated during labor or immediately after birth to prevent vertical transmission.
When developing an educational program for adolescents about nutrition during the third trimester of pregnancy, which of the following statements should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement to include when developing an educational program for adolescents about nutrition during the third trimester of pregnancy is to consume three to four servings of dairy each day. Adequate calcium intake is crucial for bone development during pregnancy and helps prevent complications related to inadequate calcium intake. Increasing daily caloric intake by 600 to 700 calories (Choice B) is not necessary during the third trimester; excessive caloric intake can lead to unnecessary weight gain. Limiting daily sodium intake to less than 1 gram (Choice C) is not suitable during pregnancy, as some sodium intake is necessary for maintaining fluid balance. Increasing protein intake to 40 to 50 grams per day (Choice D) is important during pregnancy, but the emphasis in this case should be on calcium from dairy sources for bone development.
A parent of a newborn is being taught about crib safety. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Removing extra blankets from the crib is essential to prevent suffocation and reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Extra blankets can pose a suffocation hazard to the baby during sleep. It is recommended to keep the crib free from loose bedding, pillows, and other soft items to provide a safe sleep environment for the newborn. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Placing the baby on his stomach (Choice A) increases the risk of SIDS. Padding the mattress (Choice C) can also pose a suffocation risk, and placing the crib next to a heater (Choice D) can lead to overheating, which is associated with an increased risk of SIDS.
A nurse is preparing to perform Leopold maneuvers for a client. Identify the sequence the nurse should follow.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct sequence for the nurse to follow when performing Leopold maneuvers is as follows: first, palpate the client's fundus to identify the fetal part, second, determine the location of the fetal back, third, palpate for the fetal part presenting at the inlet, and finally, palpate the cephalic prominence to identify the attitude of the head. Therefore, option D, 'All of the Above,' is the correct answer as it includes all the steps in the correct sequence. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not represent the complete sequence required for performing Leopold maneuvers.
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 40 weeks of gestation and is in early labor. The client has a platelet count of 75,000/mm3 and is requesting pain relief. Which of the following treatment modalities should the nurse anticipate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Attention-focusing and distraction techniques are types of nonpharmacological care that are effective in relieving labor pain.
A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation is being educated about common discomforts of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the individual include? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During early pregnancy, common discomforts include breast tenderness due to hormonal changes, urinary frequency caused by increased blood flow to the kidneys, and epistaxis (nosebleeds) due to increased blood volume and hormonal changes. Educating the client about these discomforts helps them understand what to expect during this stage. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer because all the listed findings are common discomforts experienced during early pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C are individually correct as well, as breast tenderness, urinary frequency, and epistaxis are all common discomforts that pregnant individuals may encounter.
A nurse in a clinic receives a phone call from a client who would like information about pregnancy testing. Which of the following information should the nurse provide to the client?
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Explanation:
For the most accurate results, a home pregnancy test should be done using the first morning urine, which contains the highest concentration of hCG.
A client who is postpartum and has thrombophlebitis requires nursing interventions. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse recommend?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Measuring leg circumferences is crucial in monitoring for changes that may indicate worsening of thrombophlebitis, such as increased swelling or redness. This assessment helps in early detection of complications and timely intervention, reducing the risk of further health problems for the client. Applying cold compresses may worsen the condition by causing vasoconstriction. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge a clot and lead to embolism. Allowing the client to ambulate may increase the risk of clot migration.
A client is exhibiting tearfulness, insomnia, lack of appetite, and a feeling of letdown after childbirth. Which of the following conditions is associated with these manifestations?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, Postpartum blues. Postpartum blues, also known as baby blues, are common after childbirth and are characterized by symptoms like tearfulness, insomnia, lack of appetite, and a feeling of letdown. This condition is typically self-limiting and resolves without specific treatment. Postpartum fatigue (choice A) refers to extreme tiredness after childbirth but does not typically include symptoms like tearfulness and insomnia. Postpartum psychosis (choice B) is a severe condition that includes symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions, which are not present in the scenario. The letting-go phase (choice C) does not represent a specific postpartum condition related to the symptoms described.
A client who is 2 days postpartum has a saturated perineal pad with bright red lochia containing small clots. What should the nurse document in the client's medical record?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Moderate lochia rubra.' On the second day postpartum, it is normal for lochia to be bright red and contain small clots, indicating moderate lochia rubra. This amount of bleeding is expected as the uterus continues to shed its lining after childbirth. Excessive lochia serosa, light lochia rubra, and scant lochia serosa do not accurately reflect the described scenario. Excessive lochia serosa is more characteristic of a later postpartum period, while light and scant lochia serosa are not consistent with the bright red color and small clots observed in this case.
A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about potential adverse effects of implantable progestins. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider include? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When educating a client about implantable progestins, it is important to discuss potential adverse effects. Nausea, irregular vaginal bleeding, and weight gain are common side effects associated with implantable progestins. Therefore, clients should be informed about these possibilities to ensure they are aware of what to expect and when to seek medical attention if needed. Choice D, 'All of the Above,' is the correct answer because all of the listed adverse effects (nausea, irregular vaginal bleeding, and weight gain) should be included in the client education. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they individually do not encompass all the potential adverse effects that the healthcare provider should discuss with the client.
When teaching a new mother how to use a bulb syringe to suction her newborn's secretions, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for using a bulb syringe to suction a newborn's secretions is to stop suctioning when the newborn's cry no longer sounds like it is coming through a bubble of fluid or mucus. This indicates that the airways are clear, and further suctioning is not needed to prevent irritation or damage to the delicate tissues of the newborn's nose and throat. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because inserting the syringe tip before compressing the bulb, suctioning each nare before the mouth, and inserting the tip at the center of the mouth can potentially harm the newborn and are not recommended practices for using a bulb syringe in this context.
A client is learning how to check basal temperature to determine ovulation. When should the client check her temperature?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The basal body temperature should be taken every morning before arising as it provides the most accurate reading. This time ensures consistency and eliminates variations that may occur throughout the day due to activities or environmental factors. Choice A is incorrect because ovulation can vary among individuals, and checking temperature on specific days may not align with the actual ovulation day. Choice C is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between intercourse and basal body temperature. Choice D is incorrect because taking the temperature before going to bed does not provide a consistent baseline reading.
During an assessment of a client in labor who received epidural anesthesia, which finding should the nurse identify as a complication of the epidural block?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hypotension is a common complication of epidural anesthesia due to the vasodilation effect of the medication. Epidural anesthesia can lead to vasodilation, causing a decrease in blood pressure. This hypotension may result in decreased perfusion to vital organs and compromise maternal and fetal well-being. Tachycardia is less likely as a complication of epidural anesthesia since it tends to have a vasodilatory effect. Respiratory depression is more commonly associated with other forms of anesthesia, such as general anesthesia, rather than epidural anesthesia. Vomiting is not typically a direct complication of epidural anesthesia and is more commonly seen with other factors such as pain or medications given during labor.
A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation and reports daily mild headaches is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Mild headaches during pregnancy can be common and are often related to stress and tension. Recommending conscious relaxation techniques daily can help to relieve tension, reduce stress, and alleviate headaches without the need for medication, which is safer during pregnancy. Choice A is incorrect as ibuprofen is not recommended during pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus. Choice C is incorrect because ginseng tea is not recommended during pregnancy as it may have adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect as soaking in a hot bath with a water temperature of 105°F can raise the body temperature, which is not safe during pregnancy.
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