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ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored

1. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is at 7 weeks of gestation. The client reports urinary frequency and asks if this will continue until delivery. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Urinary frequency is common during the first trimester and again at the end of pregnancy when the baby drops into the pelvis, putting pressure on the bladder.

2. A client with a BMI of 26.5 is seeking advice on weight gain during pregnancy at the first prenatal visit. Which of the following responses should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a client with a BMI of 26.5 (overweight), the recommended weight gain during pregnancy is 15 to 25 pounds. This range helps promote a healthy pregnancy outcome and reduces the risk of complications associated with excessive weight gain. Option A suggests a lower weight gain range, which may not be adequate for a client with a BMI of 26.5. Option C indicates a higher weight gain range, which could lead to complications for an overweight individual. Option D provides a general guideline for weight gain without considering the client's BMI, which is not personalized advice. Therefore, the most appropriate response is option B, offering a suitable weight gain recommendation for the client's BMI to support a healthy pregnancy journey.

3. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Quickening, which is the first perception of fetal movements by the mother, typically occurs between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy, around 18-20 weeks of gestation. Choice C is correct as it provides the client with accurate information about the expected timing of this significant milestone in her pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not happen during the last trimester, by the end of the first trimester, or once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis. The correct timeframe for quickening is during the second trimester, specifically between the fourth and fifth months.

4. A client is being cared for 2 hours after a spontaneous vaginal birth and has saturated two perineal pads with blood in a 30-minute period. Which of the following is the priority nursing intervention at this time?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention in this situation is to palpate the client's uterine fundus. A boggy uterus that is not well contracted may indicate uterine atony, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. Palpating the fundus and massaging it if it is boggy helps to promote contractions and reduce bleeding, making it the most critical intervention to address the potential underlying issue. Assisting the client to a bedpan to urinate, preparing to administer oxytocic medication, or increasing the client's fluid intake are not the immediate priorities in this scenario compared to assessing and addressing the uterine fundus status.

5. A nurse in a prenatal clinic overhears a newly licensed nurse discussing conception with a client. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse requires intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because implantation typically occurs between 6 to 10 days after conception, not 2 to 3 days. It is crucial for the nurse to intervene and provide accurate information to ensure the client receives correct education about conception. Choice A is correct as fertilization does occur in the outer third of the fallopian tube. Choice C is also accurate as sperm can remain viable in the woman's reproductive tract for 2 to 3 days. Choice D is correct as bleeding or spotting can indeed accompany implantation.

Similar Questions

A healthcare professional is assessing a newborn immediately following a scheduled cesarean delivery. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare professional's priority?
During the admission assessment of a newborn, which anatomical landmark should be used for measuring the newborn's chest circumference?
A client is scheduled for a cesarean birth based on fetal lung maturity. Which finding indicates that the fetal lungs are mature?
A patient on the labor and delivery unit is having induction of labor with oxytocin administered through a secondary IV line. Uterine contractions occur every 2 minutes, last 90 seconds, and are strong to palpation. The baseline fetal heart rate is 150/min, with uniform decelerations beginning at the peak of the contraction and a return to baseline after the contraction is over. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and is in active labor has fetal heart tones located above the umbilicus at midline. The fetus is likely in which of the following positions?
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