LPN LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored
1. A client at 38 weeks of gestation with a diagnosis of preeclampsia has the following findings. Which of the following should the nurse identify as inconsistent with preeclampsia?
- A. 1+ pitting sacral edema
- B. 3+ protein in the urine
- C. Blood pressure 148/98 mm Hg
- D. Deep tendon reflexes of +1
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Deep tendon reflexes of +1 are inconsistent with preeclampsia. Preeclampsia typically presents with hyperreflexia, not diminished reflexes. Diminished reflexes may indicate other neurological conditions, thus making this finding inconsistent with preeclampsia. Choices A, B, and C are consistent with preeclampsia. Pitting sacral edema, protein in the urine, and elevated blood pressure are common findings in preeclampsia due to fluid retention, kidney involvement, and hypertension associated with the condition.
2. A client in labor is having contractions 4 minutes apart. Which of the following patterns should the nurse expect on the fetal monitoring tracing?
- A. Contractions that last for 60 seconds each with a 4-minute rest between contractions
- B. A contraction that lasts 4 minutes followed by a period of relaxation
- C. Contractions that last for 60 seconds each with a 3-minute rest between contractions
- D. Contractions that last 45 seconds each with a 3-minute rest between contractions
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When contractions are 4 minutes apart, it means there are 4 minutes from the start of one contraction to the start of the next. If each contraction lasts 60 seconds, there will be a 3-minute rest period between contractions. This allows for adequate uterine relaxation and recovery before the next contraction begins. Choice A is incorrect because it suggests a 4-minute rest between contractions, which is not accurate. Choice B is incorrect as contractions lasting 4 minutes continuously without rest would be concerning. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests 45-second contractions instead of 60-second contractions.
3. A client in active labor has 7 cm of cervical dilation, 100% effacement, and the fetus at 1+ station. The client's amniotic membranes are intact, but she suddenly expresses the need to push. What should the nurse do?
- A. Assist the client into a comfortable position.
- B. Observe the perineum for signs of crowning.
- C. Have the client pant during the next contractions.
- D. Help the client to the bathroom to void.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Having the client pant during contractions is crucial to prevent premature pushing, particularly when the cervix is not fully dilated. Premature pushing can lead to cervical swelling and may impede the progress of labor. It is important to allow the cervix to fully dilate before active pushing to prevent complications. Assisting the client into a comfortable position (Choice A) may not address the urge to push and can lead to premature pushing. Observing the perineum for signs of crowning (Choice B) is important but does not address the immediate need to prevent premature pushing. Helping the client to the bathroom to void (Choice D) does not address the urge to push and may not be appropriate at this stage of labor.
4. A client is learning how to check basal temperature to determine ovulation. When should the client check her temperature?
- A. On days 13 to 17 of her menstrual cycle
- B. Every morning before arising
- C. 1 hour following intercourse
- D. Before going to bed every night
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The basal body temperature should be taken every morning before arising as it provides the most accurate reading. This time ensures consistency and eliminates variations that may occur throughout the day due to activities or environmental factors. Choice A is incorrect because ovulation can vary among individuals, and checking temperature on specific days may not align with the actual ovulation day. Choice C is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between intercourse and basal body temperature. Choice D is incorrect because taking the temperature before going to bed does not provide a consistent baseline reading.
5. A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?
- A. Painless red vaginal bleeding
- B. Increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus
- C. Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding
- D. Intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Painless red vaginal bleeding is a hallmark sign of placenta previa. In this condition, the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening, leading to painless, bright red bleeding due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Other types of bleeding, such as those associated with abdominal pain or mucus passage, are more indicative of conditions like placental abruption rather than placenta previa. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they describe findings more consistent with placental abruption rather than placenta previa.
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