LPN LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a newborn immediately following a scheduled cesarean delivery. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare professional's priority?
- A. Respiratory distress
- B. Hypothermia
- C. Accidental lacerations
- D. Acrocyanosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory distress. Assessing for respiratory distress is the priority when evaluating a newborn after a cesarean delivery. Newborns born via cesarean section are at higher risk for respiratory complications, making it crucial to monitor their breathing and ensure proper oxygenation immediately after birth. Choice B, hypothermia, is important too but assessing breathing takes precedence to ensure adequate oxygen supply. Choices C and D, accidental lacerations and acrocyanosis, are not the immediate priorities following a cesarean delivery.
2. During an assessment of a client in labor who received epidural anesthesia, which finding should the nurse identify as a complication of the epidural block?
- A. Vomiting
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Respiratory depression
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hypotension is a common complication of epidural anesthesia due to the vasodilation effect of the medication. Epidural anesthesia can lead to vasodilation, causing a decrease in blood pressure. This hypotension may result in decreased perfusion to vital organs and compromise maternal and fetal well-being. Tachycardia is less likely as a complication of epidural anesthesia since it tends to have a vasodilatory effect. Respiratory depression is more commonly associated with other forms of anesthesia, such as general anesthesia, rather than epidural anesthesia. Vomiting is not typically a direct complication of epidural anesthesia and is more commonly seen with other factors such as pain or medications given during labor.
3. When advising a woman considering pregnancy on nutritional needs to reduce the risk of giving birth to a newborn with a neural tube defect, what information should the nurse include?
- A. Limit alcohol consumption.
- B. Increase intake of iron-rich foods.
- C. Consume foods fortified with folic acid.
- D. Avoid foods containing aspartame.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Consume foods fortified with folic acid. Folic acid plays a crucial role in preventing neural tube defects. It is advised to consume foods fortified with folic acid or take a supplement containing at least 400 micrograms of folic acid daily. This nutrient is essential for the developing fetus and can significantly reduce the risk of neural tube defects when taken before and during early pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While limiting alcohol consumption is important during pregnancy, it is not directly related to reducing the risk of neural tube defects. Increasing intake of iron-rich foods is essential for preventing anemia but is not specifically linked to neural tube defects. Avoiding foods containing aspartame is generally recommended, but it is not directly related to reducing the risk of neural tube defects.
4. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. This will occur during the last trimester of pregnancy.
- B. This will happen by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.
- C. This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy.
- D. This will happen once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Quickening, which is the first perception of fetal movements by the mother, typically occurs between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy, around 18-20 weeks of gestation. Choice C is correct as it provides the client with accurate information about the expected timing of this significant milestone in her pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not happen during the last trimester, by the end of the first trimester, or once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis. The correct timeframe for quickening is during the second trimester, specifically between the fourth and fifth months.
5. While caring for a newborn, a nurse auscultates an apical heart rate of 130/min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Ask another nurse to verify the heart rate.
- B. Document this as an expected finding.
- C. Call the provider to further assess the newborn.
- D. Prepare the newborn for transport to the NICU.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An apical heart rate of 130/min is within the expected range for a newborn. It is not necessary to seek verification from another nurse, call the provider for further assessment, or prepare for NICU transport based on this heart rate. Documenting the heart rate as an expected finding is the appropriate action in this situation as it falls within the normal range for a newborn's heart rate.
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