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Maternal Newborn ATI Quizlet
1. During a client's active labor, a healthcare provider notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. What is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?
- A. The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior position.
- B. The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet.
- C. The posterior fontanel is palpable.
- D. The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: At 0 station, the lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines, indicating that the presenting part of the baby has engaged in the pelvis. This position is a significant milestone in labor progress and suggests that the baby is descending into the birth canal for delivery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A refers to the fetal head position, choice B describes the largest fetal diameter passing through the pelvic outlet (which is not related to station), and choice C refers to the palpability of the posterior fontanel (which is not relevant to station in labor).
2. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following should the provider recognize as a clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?
- A. Increased blood pressure in the arms with decreased blood pressure in the legs
- B. Decreased blood pressure in the arms with increased blood pressure in the legs
- C. Increased blood pressure in both the arms and the legs
- D. Decreased blood pressure in both the arms and the legs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is increased blood pressure in the arms with decreased blood pressure in the legs. Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital heart defect characterized by a narrowing of the aorta, leading to increased blood pressure in the upper extremities and decreased blood pressure in the lower extremities due to decreased blood flow beyond the narrowing. Choice B is incorrect because coarctation of the aorta does not lead to increased blood pressure in the legs. Choice C is incorrect because increased blood pressure in both the arms and legs is not a typical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta. Choice D is incorrect because decreased blood pressure in both the arms and legs is not characteristic of coarctation of the aorta.
3. A healthcare provider is admitting a client who has severe preeclampsia at 35 weeks of gestation and is reviewing the provider's orders. Which of the following orders requires clarification?
- A. Assess deep tendon reflexes every hour.
- B. Obtain a daily weight.
- C. Continuous fetal monitoring
- D. Ambulate twice daily
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Ambulating twice daily is not recommended for a client with severe preeclampsia. Clients with severe preeclampsia are at risk for seizures and should be on bed rest to prevent complications. Ambulation can increase blood pressure and the risk of seizure activity in these clients. Assessing deep tendon reflexes, obtaining a daily weight, and continuous fetal monitoring are all appropriate and important interventions for a client with severe preeclampsia to monitor for signs of worsening condition and fetal well-being.
4. A client in the antepartum unit is at 36 weeks of gestation and has pregnancy-induced hypertension. Suddenly, the client reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The nurse should suspect which of the following complications?
- A. Placenta previa
- B. Prolapsed cord
- C. Incompetent cervix
- D. Abruptio placentae
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Abruptio placentae is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, which can cause continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. In this scenario, the client's symptoms of sudden abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding are indicative of abruptio placentae, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent potential complications for both the client and the fetus. Placenta previa is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, not sudden abdominal pain. Prolapsed cord presents with visible umbilical cord protruding from the vagina and is not associated with abruptio placentae symptoms. Incompetent cervix typically manifests as painless cervical dilation in the second trimester, not sudden abdominal pain and bleeding as seen in abruptio placentae.
5. During newborn gestational age assessment, which finding should be recorded as part of this assessment on the newborn?
- A. Acrocyanosis of hands and feet
- B. Anterior fontanel soft and level
- C. Plantar creases cover 2/3 of sole
- D. Vernix caseosa in inguinal creases
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Plantar creases covering 2/3 of the sole is an important physical characteristic used to assess gestational age in a newborn. This finding is significant because as gestational age advances, the plantar creases cover a larger portion of the sole. It is a valuable clue to the healthcare provider in determining the newborn's maturity level. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically relate to gestational age assessment. Acrocyanosis and vernix caseosa are common findings in newborns but are not directly used for determining gestational age. The softness and level of the anterior fontanel can provide information about intracranial pressure but are not directly related to gestational age assessment.
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