LPN LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A client has a new prescription for methotrexate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid consuming dairy products.
- B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Increase your intake of folic acid.
- D. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Increasing folic acid intake is crucial when taking methotrexate because the medication can lead to folic acid deficiency. Folic acid supplementation helps counteract this deficiency and reduces the risk of adverse effects associated with methotrexate therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding dairy products is not specifically necessary for methotrexate therapy. Methotrexate is usually taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects, so taking it on an empty stomach is not recommended. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia is not directly related to methotrexate use.
2. When educating a client about the use of risedronate to treat osteoporosis, which instruction should be included?
- A. Drink a full glass of water with each dose.
- B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
- D. Avoid lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking risedronate to treat osteoporosis is to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. This is important to prevent esophageal irritation, as risedronate can cause irritation if it remains in contact with the esophagus. By staying upright, the medication is more likely to reach the stomach quickly and reduce the risk of irritation to the esophagus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Drinking a full glass of water is recommended, not milk, to help with swallowing the medication. Risedronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with meals, to ensure proper absorption. Additionally, avoiding lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication helps prevent esophageal irritation.
3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take the medication in the morning.
- B. Monitor for muscle weakness.
- C. Eat foods high in potassium.
- D. Expect weight gain.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement that the nurse should include in the teaching for a client prescribed furosemide is to eat foods high in potassium. Furosemide can lead to potassium depletion (hypokalemia) due to increased urine output. Consuming potassium-rich foods like bananas, oranges, spinach, and potatoes can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking furosemide in the morning, monitoring for muscle weakness, and expecting weight gain are not directly related to the potential side effects or necessary dietary adjustments when taking furosemide.
4. During an assessment, a client taking valproic acid exhibits elevated liver enzymes. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Elevated liver enzymes
- B. Weight loss
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevated liver enzymes are a critical finding that the nurse should report to the provider when assessing a client taking valproic acid. It can be indicative of hepatotoxicity, a severe side effect associated with valproic acid use. Timely reporting and intervention are essential to prevent further complications and ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to valproic acid use or the manifestation of hepatotoxicity. Weight loss, dry mouth, and increased appetite are not typically associated with elevated liver enzymes in the context of valproic acid administration.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Prime the blood tubing with normal saline.
- B. Verify the client’s identity using two identifiers.
- C. Infuse the blood rapidly over 30 minutes.
- D. Obtain the client’s vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Verifying the client’s identity using two identifiers is a critical patient safety measure to ensure the correct patient receives the blood transfusion. This process involves checking the patient's identity using at least two unique identifiers, such as name, date of birth, or medical record number, to prevent administration errors. Priming the blood tubing with normal saline is necessary to ensure there are no air bubbles in the tubing, but it is not the immediate action required before administering the blood. Infusing packed red blood cells over 30 minutes is generally too rapid and can lead to adverse reactions; a slower rate is recommended for safe administration. Obtaining vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion is not frequent enough to monitor the client adequately for potential transfusion reactions or complications; vital signs should be monitored more frequently, especially during the initial phase of the transfusion.
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