LPN LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A client has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the client be instructed to monitor and report?
- A. Frequent urination
- B. Tremors
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Persistent cough
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Persistent cough. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, is known to commonly cause a persistent cough as an adverse effect due to its effect on bradykinin levels. Clients should be instructed to monitor for a persistent cough and report it promptly to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not commonly associated with enalapril use and are not typical adverse effects of ACE inhibitors.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings is a priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
- A. Frequent urination
- B. Dry cough
- C. Tremors
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dizziness. Dizziness is a sign of hypotension, a potential adverse effect of enalapril. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor commonly prescribed for hypertension. Hypotension is a serious side effect that can lead to complications such as falls and injuries. Reporting dizziness promptly is crucial to prevent any harm to the client. Choices A, B, and C are not directly associated with enalapril use and are less concerning compared to the potential implications of hypotension indicated by dizziness.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking levodopa/carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Dry mouth
- B. Urinary retention
- C. Bradykinesia
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bradykinesia is a cardinal symptom of Parkinson's disease characterized by slowness of movement. An increase in bradykinesia may indicate a decline in the client's condition and the need for adjustments in their medication regimen. Therefore, the healthcare professional should promptly report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the client's Parkinson's disease or the medication levodopa/carbidopa. Dry mouth is a common side effect of many medications, including anticholinergics, but not specifically levodopa/carbidopa. Urinary retention and dizziness are also not typically associated with levodopa/carbidopa use for Parkinson's disease.
4. When educating a client about the use of risedronate to treat osteoporosis, which instruction should be included?
- A. Drink a full glass of water with each dose.
- B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
- D. Avoid lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking risedronate to treat osteoporosis is to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. This is important to prevent esophageal irritation, as risedronate can cause irritation if it remains in contact with the esophagus. By staying upright, the medication is more likely to reach the stomach quickly and reduce the risk of irritation to the esophagus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Drinking a full glass of water is recommended, not milk, to help with swallowing the medication. Risedronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with meals, to ensure proper absorption. Additionally, avoiding lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication helps prevent esophageal irritation.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Prime the blood tubing with normal saline.
- B. Verify the client’s identity using two identifiers.
- C. Infuse the blood rapidly over 30 minutes.
- D. Obtain the client’s vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Verifying the client’s identity using two identifiers is a critical patient safety measure to ensure the correct patient receives the blood transfusion. This process involves checking the patient's identity using at least two unique identifiers, such as name, date of birth, or medical record number, to prevent administration errors. Priming the blood tubing with normal saline is necessary to ensure there are no air bubbles in the tubing, but it is not the immediate action required before administering the blood. Infusing packed red blood cells over 30 minutes is generally too rapid and can lead to adverse reactions; a slower rate is recommended for safe administration. Obtaining vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion is not frequent enough to monitor the client adequately for potential transfusion reactions or complications; vital signs should be monitored more frequently, especially during the initial phase of the transfusion.
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