LPN LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. International normalized ratio (INR)
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Complete blood count (CBC)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most appropriate laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin works on the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps assess its anticoagulant effect. Therapeutic levels of aPTT for clients on heparin therapy are typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, which acts on the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Complete blood count (CBC) is not specific for monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Increased urination
- B. Tremors
- C. Weight gain
- D. Blurred vision
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tremors are a concerning sign of lithium toxicity that indicate a potential overdose. Tremors can progress to more severe symptoms if not addressed promptly. Reporting tremors promptly allows the provider to assess the client's lithium levels, adjust the dosage, or provide appropriate interventions to prevent further complications. Increased urination, weight gain, and blurred vision are potential side effects of lithium but are not indicative of toxicity or overdose. While they should still be monitored, they are not as urgent as tremors in the context of lithium therapy.
3. When educating a client about the use of risedronate to treat osteoporosis, which instruction should be included?
- A. Drink a full glass of water with each dose.
- B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
- D. Avoid lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking risedronate to treat osteoporosis is to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. This is important to prevent esophageal irritation, as risedronate can cause irritation if it remains in contact with the esophagus. By staying upright, the medication is more likely to reach the stomach quickly and reduce the risk of irritation to the esophagus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Drinking a full glass of water is recommended, not milk, to help with swallowing the medication. Risedronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with meals, to ensure proper absorption. Additionally, avoiding lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication helps prevent esophageal irritation.
4. A client is being taught about the use of an albuterol inhaler. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Use the inhaler every 4 hours around the clock.
- B. Shake the inhaler well before use.
- C. Rinse your mouth with water after each use.
- D. Use the inhaler while lying down.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Shaking the inhaler well before use is a crucial step in ensuring proper medication delivery. This action helps disperse the medication evenly within the device, optimizing the effectiveness of each dose. It ensures that the client receives the intended amount of medication. The other options are incorrect: Option A suggests a fixed time interval for inhaler use, which may not be suitable for all clients and can lead to overuse. Option C, rinsing the mouth, is more relevant for corticosteroid inhalers to prevent oral thrush. Option D, using the inhaler while lying down, is not recommended as it may lead to improper drug delivery and is not the correct position for inhaler use.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking levodopa/carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Dry mouth
- B. Urinary retention
- C. Bradykinesia
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bradykinesia is a cardinal symptom of Parkinson's disease characterized by slowness of movement. An increase in bradykinesia may indicate a decline in the client's condition and the need for adjustments in their medication regimen. Therefore, the healthcare professional should promptly report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the client's Parkinson's disease or the medication levodopa/carbidopa. Dry mouth is a common side effect of many medications, including anticholinergics, but not specifically levodopa/carbidopa. Urinary retention and dizziness are also not typically associated with levodopa/carbidopa use for Parkinson's disease.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $149.99