a nurse assisting with a childbirth class is discussing nonpharmacological strategies used during labor which of the following statements by a client
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024

1. A nurse assisting with a childbirth class is discussing nonpharmacological strategies used during labor. Which of the following statements by a client indicates an understanding of cutaneous stimulation?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Apply counter-pressure for back pain.' Counter-pressure involves applying pressure to the lower back to alleviate pain during labor. This technique is a form of cutaneous stimulation, which can help with pain relief. Choice B, deep breathing exercises, is a form of relaxation technique and does not directly involve cutaneous stimulation. Choice C, visualizing the baby's head, is a mental imagery technique and does not involve physical stimulation of the skin. Choice D, massage therapy, is a tactile stimulation technique but is not specifically focused on back pain relief through counter-pressure.

2. A nurse is reinforcing discharge instructions with the parent of an infant who has rotavirus. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Applying diaper cream during each diaper change is important to prevent skin breakdown in infants with rotavirus. Rotavirus can cause diarrhea, which can lead to skin irritation. Avoiding feeding the baby for 12 hours (choice A) can lead to dehydration and is not appropriate. Giving water between feedings (choice C) can further contribute to dehydration. Applying warm compresses (choice D) may provide comfort but does not address the specific issue of preventing skin breakdown associated with rotavirus.

3. A client is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion through increased urinary excretion. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, which can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, muscle weakness, and other serious complications. Monitoring sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels is not typically associated with furosemide therapy, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

4. The physician orders risperidone (Risperdal) for a client with Alzheimer's disease. The nurse anticipates administering this medication to help decrease which of the following behaviors?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Agitation and assaultiveness. Risperidone is commonly prescribed for clients with Alzheimer's disease to reduce symptoms of agitation and aggressive behavior. This medication helps in managing challenging behaviors often seen in individuals with Alzheimer's. Choice A, sleep disturbances, is incorrect as risperidone is not primarily indicated for treating sleep issues in Alzheimer's patients. Choice B, concomitant depression, is also incorrect as risperidone is not the first-line treatment for depression in Alzheimer's disease. Choice D, confusion and withdrawal, is incorrect as risperidone does not directly target these symptoms in Alzheimer's patients.

5. What is the best nursing intervention for a patient with hyperkalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer potassium-wasting diuretics. Hyperkalemia, which is high potassium levels, is managed by promoting the excretion of potassium from the body. Potassium-wasting diuretics help the kidneys eliminate excess potassium. Encouraging a low-potassium diet (choice B) is important for long-term management but not the immediate intervention for hyperkalemia. Administering potassium supplements (choice C) would worsen the condition by further increasing potassium levels. Administering IV fluids (choice D) may help with hydration but does not directly address the high potassium levels characteristic of hyperkalemia.

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