ati pn comprehensive predictor 2023 quizlet ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet - Nursing Elites
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet

1. A client with an NG tube is experiencing nausea and a decrease in gastric secretions. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for a client with an NG tube experiencing nausea and decreased gastric secretions is to irrigate the NG tube with sterile water. This can help clear any blockages in the tube, which may be causing the symptoms. Positioning the client on their left side may be helpful for enteral feedings but is not the priority in this situation. Replacing the NG tube should not be the initial step unless irrigation fails to resolve the issue. Increasing the suction setting without attempting to clear the blockage can be harmful to the client.

2. What should a healthcare provider prioritize for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder, the priority is to monitor for signs of depression. Individuals with bipolar disorder are at risk of severe depressive episodes, making it crucial to watch for signs of depression. While changes in energy levels and self-esteem are common in bipolar disorder, they are not the primary focus. Hyperactivity is a characteristic of the manic phase of bipolar disorder, so monitoring for depression is the priority in this case.

3. What are the nursing interventions for a patient receiving anticoagulant therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention for a patient receiving anticoagulant therapy is to monitor INR levels and check for signs of bleeding. Monitoring the INR levels helps assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulant therapy, while checking for bleeding is essential due to the increased risk associated with anticoagulants. Choice B is incorrect as antiplatelet therapy is not the standard treatment for patients on anticoagulant therapy. Choice C is incorrect as providing additional anticoagulation is not a direct nursing intervention in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect because administering aspirin, an antiplatelet medication, along with anticoagulants can increase the risk of bleeding and is generally avoided.

4. What intervention is key when managing a client with delirium?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention when managing a client with delirium is to identify any reversible causes. Delirium can be caused by various factors such as infections, medications, dehydration, or metabolic imbalances. Administering antipsychotic medications (Choice A) may worsen delirium and should be avoided unless necessary for specific indications. Providing a low-stimulation environment (Choice C) is beneficial as it can help reduce agitation and confusion in individuals with delirium. Increasing environmental stimulation (Choice D) is contraindicated as it can exacerbate symptoms in delirious patients. Therefore, the priority should be on identifying and addressing reversible causes to effectively manage delirium.

5. A charge nurse is teaching new staff members about factors that increase a client's risk of becoming violent. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include as the best predictor of future violence?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Previous violent behavior. This is considered the best predictor of future violent actions as individuals who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts again. Option A, experiencing delusions, although it can impact behavior, is not as strong of a predictor as past violent behavior. Option B, male gender, is a demographic factor but not as specific or predictive as a history of violence. Option D, a history of being in prison, may indicate past behavior but is not directly linked to future violent actions as a known history of violence.

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ATI TEAS 7 Exam Overview

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