LPN LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is administering lorazepam to a client who is scheduled for surgery within 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take after administering the medication?
- A. Keep the client awake
- B. Instruct the client not to get out of bed
- C. Encourage the client to drink fluids
- D. Encourage early ambulation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client not to get out of bed. Lorazepam is a sedative that can cause drowsiness and impair coordination. By instructing the client not to get out of bed, the nurse helps prevent falls or injuries that could occur due to the medication's sedative effects. Choice A is incorrect as keeping the client awake may not be necessary and could lead to unnecessary discomfort. Choice C is incorrect as encouraging the client to drink fluids is not directly related to the administration of lorazepam. Choice D is incorrect as early ambulation is not safe immediately after administering a sedative medication.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is having difficulty voiding following the removal of an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?
- A. Assess for bladder distention after 6 hours
- B. Encourage the client to use a bedpan in the supine position
- C. Restrict the client's intake of oral fluids
- D. Pour warm water over the client's perineum
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to pour warm water over the client's perineum. This intervention can help stimulate voiding after catheter removal by promoting relaxation of the perineal muscles and increasing sensory input to the bladder. Assessing for bladder distention after 6 hours (Choice A) is important but not the initial intervention for difficulty voiding. Encouraging the client to use a bedpan in the supine position (Choice B) may not be effective in promoting voiding. Restricting the client's intake of oral fluids (Choice C) is not appropriate as hydration is important for urinary function.
3. What are the key differences between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia?
- A. Hypoglycemia: Sweating, trembling; Hyperglycemia: Frequent urination, thirst
- B. Hypoglycemia: Increased thirst; Hyperglycemia: Sweating, confusion
- C. Hypoglycemia: Increased appetite; Hyperglycemia: Blurred vision
- D. Hypoglycemia: Dizziness; Hyperglycemia: Low blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hypoglycemia typically presents with sweating and trembling, while hyperglycemia is characterized by frequent urination and thirst. Therefore, the correct key differences between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are that hypoglycemia includes symptoms like sweating and trembling, while hyperglycemia involves symptoms such as frequent urination and thirst. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the characteristic symptoms of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia, as stated in the question.
4. A charge nurse is teaching new staff members about factors that increase a client's risk of becoming violent. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include as the best predictor of future violence?
- A. Experiencing delusions.
- B. Male gender.
- C. Previous violent behavior.
- D. A history of being in prison.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Previous violent behavior. This is considered the best predictor of future violent actions as individuals who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts again. Option A, experiencing delusions, although it can impact behavior, is not as strong of a predictor as past violent behavior. Option B, male gender, is a demographic factor but not as specific or predictive as a history of violence. Option D, a history of being in prison, may indicate past behavior but is not directly linked to future violent actions as a known history of violence.
5. What should a healthcare professional prioritize when managing a client with delirium?
- A. Administering sedative medication
- B. Providing a low-stimulation environment
- C. Identifying the underlying cause of the delirium
- D. Controlling behavioral symptoms with medication
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When managing a client with delirium, the priority should be to identify the underlying cause of the delirium. Delirium can result from various triggers such as infections, medication side effects, or metabolic imbalances. By determining the root cause, healthcare professionals can provide targeted treatment and improve outcomes. Administering sedative medication (Choice A) could exacerbate delirium as these drugs can worsen confusion. While providing a low-stimulation environment (Choice B) is beneficial, it is not as critical as identifying the cause. Controlling behavioral symptoms with medication (Choice D) should only be considered after identifying and addressing the underlying cause of delirium.
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