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PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn
1. A client who is being admitted for induction of labor is receiving teaching about newborn safety from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will check the identification badge of anyone who removes my baby from our room.
- B. I should include a photo of my baby along with any public birth announcements on social media.
- C. I will allow my baby to sleep on the bed in my room when I am in the shower.
- D. I should expect the nurses to carry my baby in their arms to the nursery.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because the client should verify the identification badge of anyone removing their baby to ensure the infant's safety and prevent abduction. This statement demonstrates an understanding of the importance of strict identification protocols in the hospital setting. Choice B is incorrect because including a photo of the baby in public announcements does not relate to newborn safety teaching. Choice C is incorrect as it is unsafe to allow a baby to sleep on the bed unsupervised. Choice D is incorrect because nurses typically encourage parents to carry their baby to the nursery themselves for bonding and security reasons.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and is experiencing continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The client has a history of cocaine use. The nurse should identify that the client is likely experiencing which of the following complications?
- A. Abruptio placentae
- B. Hydatidiform mole
- C. Preterm labor
- D. Placenta previa
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding in a client with a history of cocaine use suggest abruptio placentae, where the placenta detaches from the uterus prematurely, posing serious risks to both mother and fetus. Hydatidiform mole is characterized by abnormal trophoblastic tissue growth, not continuous pain and bleeding. Preterm labor is premature contractions leading to birth before 37 weeks gestation. Placenta previa involves the placenta partially or completely covering the cervix, presenting with painless vaginal bleeding.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 hours postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Uterine fundus is firm and midline
- B. Client's perineal pad is saturated in 15 minutes
- C. Client reports breast tenderness when breastfeeding
- D. Client's temperature is 100.4°F
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A perineal pad saturated in 15 minutes is a sign of excessive postpartum bleeding, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent postpartum hemorrhage. The other findings are normal postpartum occurrences. A firm and midline uterine fundus indicates proper involution, breast tenderness during breastfeeding is common due to engorgement, and a temperature of 100.4°F is considered within the normal range for the postpartum period.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has a diagnosis of group B streptococcus ß-hemolytic infection. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Ampicillin
- B. Azithromycin
- C. Ceftriaxone
- D. Acyclovir
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Ampicillin is the correct choice for treating group B streptococcus infections in pregnant women during labor to prevent neonatal infection. Group B streptococcus is commonly treated with penicillin or ampicillin; therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Azithromycin is not the first-line treatment for group B streptococcus. Ceftriaxone is not the preferred antibiotic for this infection during labor. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used for herpes simplex virus infections, not bacterial infections like group B streptococcus.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr
- B. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
- C. Absent deep tendon reflexes
- D. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate can depress the central nervous system, leading to respiratory depression. A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute is below the normal range and requires immediate intervention. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr (Choice A) is within the normal range for a client receiving magnesium sulfate. Absent deep tendon reflexes (Choice C) are an expected finding due to the medication's effect on neuromuscular excitability. A blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg (Choice D) is slightly elevated but not a priority concern compared to severe respiratory depression.
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