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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Which instruction should the nurse give to the client to monitor for hypoglycemia?
- A. Monitor for polyuria
- B. Monitor for diaphoresis
- C. Monitor for abdominal pain
- D. Monitor for thirst
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for diaphoresis.' Diaphoresis, which refers to excessive sweating, is a common symptom of hypoglycemia. It indicates a low blood sugar level and should prompt immediate treatment. Polyuria (excessive urination), abdominal pain, and thirst are not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Polyuria is more commonly linked to hyperglycemia, while abdominal pain and thirst are not specific symptoms of hypoglycemia.
2. A postpartum client with AB negative blood whose newborn is B positive requires what intervention?
- A. Administer Rh immune globulin within 72 hours of delivery
- B. Administer Rh immune globulin at the 6-week postpartum visit
- C. No Rh immune globulin is needed since this is the second pregnancy
- D. Both mother and baby need Rh immune globulin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention is to administer Rh immune globulin within 72 hours of delivery. This is essential to prevent the mother from forming antibodies against Rh-positive blood, which could cause complications in future pregnancies. Choice B is incorrect as the administration should be immediate postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as Rh immune globulin is needed for each Rh-incompatible pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect as only the mother, who is Rh-negative, needs Rh immune globulin.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Which of the following foods indicates understanding of dietary teaching?
- A. Cottage cheese
- B. Tuna salad
- C. Rice with black beans
- D. Three-egg omelet
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Rice with black beans.' Plant-based proteins such as beans are recommended for clients with hepatic encephalopathy to reduce ammonia production from animal proteins. Cottage cheese (choice A), tuna salad (choice B), and a three-egg omelet (choice D) are high in animal proteins, which can contribute to increased ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy, making them less suitable dietary choices for these clients.
4. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client scheduled to receive chemotherapy for the first time
- B. A client post-appendectomy with diminished bowel sounds
- C. A client with hypothyroidism who is stuporous
- D. A client with burns requiring a sterile dressing change
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client with hypothyroidism who is stuporous should be assessed first as this may indicate a critical condition, possibly related to severe hypothyroidism. Stupor is a state of near-unconsciousness or insensibility, suggesting a decline in neurological function that requires immediate evaluation. Choices A, B, and D do not present with immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent assessment. While chemotherapy, post-appendectomy complications, and burn care are important, they do not pose the same level of immediate risk as a stuporous client.
5. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. What action should the nurse take if the client develops toxicity?
- A. Position the client supine
- B. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5%
- C. Administer calcium gluconate IV
- D. Administer methylergonovine IM
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In cases of magnesium sulfate toxicity, calcium gluconate is the antidote as it helps reverse the effects. Positioning the client supine (Choice A) may not directly address magnesium sulfate toxicity. Administering dextrose 5% (Choice B) is not the correct intervention for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Methylergonovine IM (Choice D) is used to manage postpartum hemorrhage, not magnesium sulfate toxicity.
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