Free ATI LPN Capstone practice for PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A (ATI LPN). Answer 65 nursing exam-style questions with rationales,
A nurse is providing teaching to a group of new parents about medications. The nurse should include that aspirin is contraindicated for children who have a viral infection due to the risk of developing which of the following adverse effects?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Reye's syndrome. Aspirin use in children with viral infections has been associated with Reye's syndrome, a serious condition that causes swelling in the liver and brain. Visual disturbances (choice B) are not typically associated with aspirin use in children with viral infections. Diabetes mellitus (choice C) and Wilms' tumor (choice D) are not adverse effects of aspirin use in this context.
A nurse is planning discharge teaching for cord care for the parent of a newborn. Which instructions would you include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction to include in the teaching for cord care is to keep the cord dry until it falls off naturally. This helps prevent infection, as the cord typically falls off in 10-14 days, not within five days. Instructing the parent to contact the provider if the cord turns black (Choice A) is important to monitor for signs of infection. Cleaning the base of the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily (Choice B) is not recommended as it can delay healing. Stating that the cord stump will fall off in ten days (Choice D) provides a more accurate timeframe compared to the initial estimation of five days.
A nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the left lower extremity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to withhold heparin IV infusion. The nurse should withhold heparin if there are signs of complications, such as bleeding, or if there are contraindications to continuing anticoagulation therapy. Positioning the client with the affected extremity higher than the heart helps reduce swelling and improve blood flow. Administering acetaminophen for pain management can be appropriate, but it is not the priority in this situation. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge the clot and lead to serious complications, so it should be avoided.
A client with a history of urinary tract infections (UTIs) is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to prevent future infections?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to advise the client to drink 2-3 liters of water per day. Adequate hydration helps flush bacteria from the urinary tract, reducing the risk of UTIs. Choice A is incorrect because wiping from front to back is the appropriate technique to prevent the spread of bacteria from the rectal area to the urethra. Choice C is incorrect as holding urine for long periods can contribute to UTIs by allowing bacteria to grow in the bladder. Choice D is incorrect as wearing loose-fitting underwear is recommended to allow air circulation and prevent moisture buildup, reducing the risk of UTIs.
During triage following a mass casualty event, which client should be prioritized?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During triage after a mass casualty event, the client showing signs of hypovolemic shock should be prioritized. Hypovolemic shock is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention to restore circulation and prevent death. While clients with head trauma, burns, and fractures also need urgent care, hypovolemic shock poses an immediate threat to life and must be addressed first to stabilize the client's condition.
A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, the nurse should monitor serum potassium levels. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide primarily affects potassium excretion rather than liver function, blood glucose levels, or calcium levels.
A nurse is caring for a 7-month-old infant being treated for severe dehydration. Which finding indicates treatment has been effective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A flat anterior fontanel indicates improved hydration in infants, as dehydration typically causes sunken fontanels.
A client with diabetes is receiving education on foot care. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Inspect feet daily for cuts and sores. Clients with diabetes are at an increased risk of foot complications, so it is essential to check for any cuts, sores, or injuries daily to prevent infections and complications. Soaking feet in warm water daily (choice B) is not recommended as it can lead to skin breakdown. Wearing closed-toe shoes at all times (choice C) is not advisable as it can cause excessive pressure and friction. Trimming toenails straight across (choice D) is the correct method to prevent ingrown toenails, not trimming them in a rounded shape.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure proper functioning of the chest tube?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To ensure proper functioning of a chest tube, the nurse should keep the drainage system below chest level. This position allows for proper drainage by gravity and prevents backflow into the pleural space. Clamping the chest tube intermittently can lead to a buildup of pressure and should be avoided. Emptying the drainage chamber every 4 hours is important but not directly related to maintaining the chest tube's function. Applying sterile gauze around the insertion site daily is essential for infection prevention but does not specifically ensure the proper functioning of the chest tube.
Four clients present to the emergency department. The nurse should plan to see which of the following clients first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. The client with slurred speech and a headache may be experiencing a stroke, which is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent irreversible brain damage. While each client requires prompt assessment and care, the priority is to address potentially life-threatening conditions first. Choices A, B, and C, although important, do not present with symptoms as critical as those of a possible stroke, which necessitates urgent intervention.
A nurse is caring for a client with end-stage osteoporosis who is experiencing severe pain and a respiratory rate of 14/min. Which medication should the nurse prioritize?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this situation, the nurse should prioritize administering Hydromorphone (choice B), an opioid analgesic, to manage the severe pain effectively. Opioids are the first-line treatment for severe pain, especially in end-stage conditions like osteoporosis. Promethazine (choice A) is an antihistamine and antiemetic, not a potent analgesic. Ketorolac (choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that may not provide sufficient pain relief in severe cases. Amitriptyline (choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant used for neuropathic pain and depression, but it is not the first choice for managing severe pain in this scenario.
A nurse is assessing a client who has pericarditis. Which of the following findings is the priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Paradoxical pulse. Paradoxical pulse, which is a significant drop in systolic blood pressure during inspiration, indicates cardiac tamponade, a life-threatening complication of pericarditis. This finding requires immediate attention as it suggests potential compromised cardiac function. Choices B, C, and D are associated with pericarditis but do not indicate the same level of urgency as paradoxical pulse.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of naloxone. Which of the following should the healthcare professional assess?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, which can cause respiratory depression. Assessing the respiratory rate before administering naloxone is crucial to monitor the patient's breathing. Choices A, C, and D are important assessments in general patient care but are not specifically crucial before administering naloxone for opioid overdose.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IM injection to a 4-month-old infant. Which of the following injection sites should the healthcare professional use?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The vastus lateralis is the preferred site for IM injections in infants under 1 year of age because it is well developed and easily accessible compared to other muscle groups. The ventrogluteal and deltoid sites are not typically used for infants due to muscle development and size. The dorsogluteal site is not recommended for infants or young children due to its proximity to major nerves and blood vessels.
A nurse is teaching a client about the use of omeprazole. Which of the following should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that can mask symptoms of gastrointestinal bleeding; clients should be monitored for this. Choices A and B are incorrect because omeprazole is usually taken before meals, and while it is important to avoid NSAIDs if possible due to their effects on the stomach, it is not directly related to omeprazole use. Choice D is also incorrect as omeprazole is not typically associated with causing drowsiness.
A nurse is caring for a client who has mild anxiety. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In mild anxiety, the client is expected to have a heightened perceptual field. This means that their perception is increased, enhancing their awareness and ability to concentrate. Feelings of dread (Choice A) are more common in moderate to severe anxiety. Rapid speech (Choice B) and purposeless activity (Choice C) are more indicative of moderate to severe anxiety where the individual may exhibit signs of agitation and restlessness.
A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of levothyroxine. Which of the following should the healthcare provider do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to assess the patient's heart rate. Levothyroxine is a thyroid hormone replacement medication that can increase metabolism. One of the potential side effects of levothyroxine is tachycardia (rapid heart rate). Therefore, it is essential for the healthcare provider to assess the patient's heart rate before administering the medication to monitor for any signs of tachycardia. Giving levothyroxine with food may affect its absorption, so it is typically recommended to administer it on an empty stomach. Administering it in the evening is not necessary unless specifically prescribed by the healthcare provider, and giving it with calcium supplements can interfere with the absorption of levothyroxine.
A nurse is preparing to administer heparin 8,000 units subcutaneously every eight hours. The amount available is heparin injection 10,000 units/mL. How many milliliters should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To determine the volume of heparin to administer per dose, divide the prescribed dose (8,000 units) by the concentration of heparin available (10,000 units/mL). 8000 units / 10000 units/mL = 0.8 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.8 mL per dose. Choice B, 0.9 mL, is incorrect as the correct calculation results in 0.8 mL. Choices C and D are significantly higher and incorrect, indicating an inaccurate calculation.
A client has been prescribed trazodone. Which of the following should be monitored?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct. Trazodone is an antidepressant that can impact mood and behavior. Monitoring for changes in mood or behavior is crucial to assess the effectiveness and potential side effects of the medication. Monitoring blood glucose levels is not typically associated with trazodone use. While trazodone can affect liver function in some cases, monitoring liver function is not the primary concern compared to assessing mood changes. Trazodone can cause changes in heart rate in some patients, but the priority monitoring in this case should be related to its effects on mood.
A client has been prescribed amlodipine for hypertension. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Dizziness.' Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension, can cause dizziness due to its blood pressure-lowering effects. It is crucial for clients to report dizziness to their healthcare provider as it may indicate hypotension. Dry cough (choice A) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, rash (choice C) may be seen in allergic reactions, and headache (choice D) is a less common side effect of amlodipine.
A nurse is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assign to an assistive personnel (AP)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because the client who had a cerebrovascular accident 2 days ago and needs help toileting is stable and the task is appropriate for delegation to an assistive personnel (AP). Choices A, B, and C involve clients with more complex care needs that require the expertise of a nurse. Choice A involves providing guidance with incentive spirometry, which requires specialized knowledge and assessment skills. Choice B involves a client who has just undergone a bronchoscopy, so close monitoring is essential to assess for any complications. Choice C involves a client who had a myocardial infarction 3 days ago and is reporting chest discomfort, which could indicate a potential cardiac issue requiring immediate nursing assessment and intervention.
A client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: PT and INR. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that affects the clotting mechanism by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are specific laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These values help healthcare providers adjust the warfarin dosage to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood glucose levels, complete blood count (CBC), and platelet count are not directly monitored to assess the effects of warfarin therapy.
A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 indicates dehydration. In this case, a urine specific gravity of 1.035 suggests concentrated urine, indicating dehydration. Choices B, C, and D have values that are not within the normal range for urine specific gravity and do not indicate dehydration. A urine specific gravity of 444, 2000, or 1111.1 are not physiologically possible values and are therefore incorrect.
A nurse is assessing a client who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Butterfly rash on the face. A butterfly-shaped rash across the nose and cheeks is a classic symptom of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), an autoimmune disease. Weight gain (Choice B) is not typically associated with SLE. Joint deformities (Choice C) are more commonly seen in conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. Increased hair growth (Choice D) is not a typical finding in SLE.
When assessing a client with a small bowel obstruction, what finding should a nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
High-pitched bowel sounds are often heard early in a small bowel obstruction due to increased peristalsis as the bowel tries to overcome the blockage. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Abdominal distention is more commonly associated with large bowel obstructions, while large bowel movements and copious vomiting are not typical findings in small bowel obstructions.
A nurse is teaching a client who is pregnant about the amniocentesis procedure. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement to include in the teaching about amniocentesis is that the client should report if they experience any contractions after the procedure. This is crucial because contractions could indicate preterm labor or other complications following the amniocentesis. Choices A and B are incorrect as a full bladder is not required for the procedure, and magnesium sulfate is not typically given before an amniocentesis. Choice C is incorrect as the procedure usually takes about 20-30 minutes to complete.
A client has been taking propranolol. Which of the following findings indicates a need to withhold the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A pulse of 54/min indicates bradycardia, which is a side effect of propranolol, a beta-blocker. The medication should be withheld if the client's pulse drops below 60/min. The other findings (sodium levels, blood pressure, and potassium levels) are not directly indicative of the need to withhold propranolol.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which finding indicates decreased cardiac output?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Oliguria. Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not receiving enough blood to produce an adequate amount of urine. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia or the body's attempt to generate heat. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not directly related to cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) are more indicative of conditions affecting the nervous system or medications.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer heparin 8,000 units subcutaneously every eight hrs. The amount available is heparin injection 10,000 units/mL. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional administer per dose?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Calculation: 8000 units / 10,000 units per mL = 0.8 mL. To correctly administer the prescribed dose of 8000 units, the healthcare professional should draw up 0.8 mL from the 10,000 units/mL vial. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculation based on the available concentration of heparin.
A nurse is caring for a client 4 hours postoperative following a thyroidectomy who reports fullness in the throat. What should the nurse assess for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Fullness in the throat after a thyroidectomy could indicate bleeding or a hematoma, which can compress the airway, so hemorrhage is the priority concern. Hypocalcemia typically presents with symptoms like tingling around the mouth or in the extremities, muscle cramps, or seizures, not fullness in the throat. Hypoxia would manifest with symptoms like shortness of breath, confusion, or cyanosis, rather than a feeling of fullness in the throat. Hypothyroidism symptoms include fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance, but it does not typically cause acute fullness in the throat postoperatively.
A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse do before administration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to check potassium levels before administering furosemide. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) as a side effect. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent potential complications related to electrolyte imbalance. Assessing blood glucose levels (choice B) is not directly related to furosemide administration. Monitoring respiratory rate (choice C) is important in certain situations, but it is not the priority before administering furosemide. Administering furosemide with food (choice D) is not a requirement as it can be administered regardless of meals.
A nurse is caring for a client with a recent diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Pyridostigmine is the drug of choice for treating myasthenia gravis because it enhances communication between nerves and muscles by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase. Methotrexate (choice A) is not indicated for myasthenia gravis but is used in conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. Baclofen (choice C) is a muscle relaxant used for conditions like spasticity. Atropine (choice D) is not typically used in myasthenia gravis as it can worsen muscle weakness.
A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory data of a client with diabetes mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests is an indicator of long-term disease management?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c). The glycosylated hemoglobin test measures average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months, providing an indication of long-term glycemic control in clients with diabetes. Choice A, postprandial blood glucose, reflects blood sugar levels after a meal and does not provide a long-term view. Choice C, glucose tolerance test, evaluates the body's ability to process sugar but does not offer a continuous assessment like the HbA1c test. Choice D, fasting blood glucose, measures blood sugar levels after a period of fasting, which is more indicative of immediate glycemic status rather than long-term management.
A nurse manager is teaching a group of employees about QSEN. What statement by an employee should the nurse manager identify as quality improvement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. QSEN focuses on quality improvement in healthcare. Tracking how soon patients are discharged after different types of surgeries helps in evaluating the quality of care provided and identifying areas for improvement. Choices A and B focus on monitoring outcomes but do not directly relate to quality improvement initiatives. Choice D is more about a routine assessment before discharge and does not involve a quality improvement process.
A nurse in an urgent-care clinic is collecting admission history from a client who is 16 weeks gestation and has bacterial vaginosis. The nurse should recognize that which of the following clinical findings are associated with this infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Bacterial vaginosis often presents with a profuse, milky white discharge and a characteristic fishy odor, without significant inflammation, hematuria, or fever. Choice A, frequency, and dysuria are more indicative of a urinary tract infection. Choice C, hematuria, is associated with conditions like urinary tract infections or kidney problems. Choice D, low-grade fever, is not a typical symptom of bacterial vaginosis.
A nurse is caring for a newborn immediately following birth. What should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Drying the newborn is the first priority to prevent heat loss, which can occur rapidly in newborns due to their large surface area and lack of body fat. This helps maintain the newborn's body temperature and prevent hypothermia. Instilling erythromycin ophthalmic ointment, placing identification bracelets, and weighing the newborn can be important steps but should come after ensuring the newborn is dried to maintain their body temperature.
A healthcare provider is providing education on the use of atorvastatin. Which of the following should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Atorvastatin requires monitoring for liver function due to its potential to cause liver abnormalities. It can also lead to muscle pain or weakness, a condition known as myopathy. Choice C is incorrect as atorvastatin is contraindicated during pregnancy due to potential harm to the fetus, making choices A and B the correct options to include in patient education.
A client is receiving vancomycin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Serum creatinine. Vancomycin is known to be nephrotoxic, meaning it can cause kidney damage. Monitoring serum creatinine levels is essential to assess kidney function and detect any signs of nephrotoxicity. Blood glucose levels (choice A) are not directly affected by vancomycin. INR levels (choice C) are typically monitored for clients on anticoagulants, not vancomycin. Liver function tests (choice D) are not primarily affected by vancomycin use; kidney function is of greater concern.
A child is prescribed ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to take ferrous sulfate with a glass of orange juice. Vitamin C, found in orange juice, enhances iron absorption. Taking iron with milk (choice C) is not recommended as it reduces iron absorption. Taking it with meals (choice A) can hinder its absorption due to other food components. Taking it at bedtime (choice B) doesn't affect absorption but might cause gastrointestinal upset in some individuals.
A nurse is assessing a client who has anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Conjunctival pallor. In anemia, there is a decrease in hemoglobin levels, leading to paleness of the conjunctiva. This is a common finding in individuals with anemia. Bounding pulse (choice A) is not typically associated with anemia but can be seen in conditions like hyperthyroidism. Elevated blood pressure (choice C) is not a common finding in anemia; instead, blood pressure may be low due to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity. Glossitis (choice D), or a swollen tongue, can be seen in certain types of anemia but is not as specific or common as conjunctival pallor.
A client is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The contractions are occurring every 45 seconds, and the fetal heart rate is 170-180 beats/min. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When contractions occur every 45 seconds with a high fetal heart rate, it indicates uterine hyperstimulation and fetal distress. In this situation, the oxytocin infusion should be discontinued immediately to prevent further complications. Increasing or maintaining the infusion would worsen the hyperstimulation and distress. Decreasing the infusion may not be sufficient to address the current situation and could still lead to complications.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of stroke. Which of the following should the healthcare professional look for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Question: A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of stroke. Slurred speech is a common sign of stroke and should be assessed immediately. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, elevated heart rate, and hyperactivity are not typical signs of a stroke.
A client is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consult. Cardiac rehabilitation is an essential part of the care plan for a client recovering from a myocardial infarction. It helps in improving recovery, enhancing quality of life, and reducing the risk of future cardiac events. Drawing troponin levels and performing EKGs are important for diagnosing and monitoring myocardial infarctions but are not interventions in the post-MI care plan. Oxygen therapy may be necessary based on the client's condition but is not specific to post-MI care.
A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube following a thoracotomy. Which of the following findings requires intervention by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
1 cm of water in the water seal chamber is insufficient to ensure proper functioning of the chest tube. The water seal chamber typically requires a water level of 2 cm. Tidaling with spontaneous respirations (choice A) is an expected finding indicating proper functioning. Having the drainage collection chamber 1/3 full (choice B) is within the normal range. A suction chamber pressure of -20 cm H2O (choice D) is an appropriate level for chest tube drainage.
A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports a decrease in the effectiveness of their arthritis medication. Which client information should the nurse identify as a contributing factor to the decrease in the medication's effectiveness?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. A history of recurring bowel inflammation can impact the absorption and effectiveness of arthritis medication. Bowel inflammation can affect the body's ability to absorb the medication properly, leading to decreased effectiveness. Choices A, B, and D do not directly relate to the decreased effectiveness of the arthritis medication. Taking medication with water, skipping doses, or taking anti-inflammatory medication without food may not be ideal practices but are not directly linked to the decrease in effectiveness reported by the client.
A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of losartan. Which of the following should the nurse assess first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to assess blood pressure first. Losartan is an angiotensin receptor blocker used to lower blood pressure. Assessing the patient's blood pressure before administering losartan is crucial to ensure it is not already too low, which could lead to hypotension. Assessing heart rate (choice B) is important but not the priority when administering losartan. Serum potassium levels (choice C) and liver function (choice D) are also important assessments, but they are not the primary concern before administering losartan.
A nurse is checking laboratory results for a client. Which of the following laboratory findings indicates hypervolemia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. A urine specific gravity of 1.001 is low and indicates dilute urine, which is a sign of fluid overload (hypervolemia). Choice A, serum sodium 138 mEq/L, is within the normal range and does not indicate hypervolemia. Choice C, serum calcium 10 mg/dL, is not typically used to diagnose hypervolemia. Choice D, urine pH 6, is also not a specific indicator of hypervolemia.
A healthcare professional is verifying nasogastric tube placement by the pH of aspirated gastric fluid. Which of the following pH values provides a good indication of correct tube placement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: '2'. Gastric contents with a pH between 0 and 4 provide a good indication of appropriate tube placement. A pH of 2 is within this range, indicating that the tube is correctly placed in the stomach. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because a pH of 5, 7, or 9 does not fall within the expected acidic pH range of gastric fluid.
A client with hypertension is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following food choices should the nurse recommend?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Baked chicken breast. It is low in sodium and a healthy option for clients with hypertension. Canned tomato soup and processed cheese are typically high in sodium, which is not recommended for individuals with hypertension. Pickled vegetables are also high in sodium and should be avoided in a hypertension-friendly diet.
A nurse is assessing a client with osteoporosis who is experiencing severe pain. The client's respiratory rate is 14/min. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B, Hydromorphone. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic commonly used to manage severe pain effectively. In this case, the client's stable respiratory rate of 14/min indicates that it is safe to administer an opioid for pain relief. Promethazine (choice A) is an antiemetic and antihistamine, not the first choice for severe pain management. Ketorolac (choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that may not be potent enough for severe pain relief associated with osteoporosis. Amitriptyline (choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant, not typically used as a first-line medication for severe pain.
A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about administering morphine via IV bolus to a client. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because respiratory depression is a significant risk when administering morphine, and it can occur within 7 minutes after administration. This information is crucial for the nurse to recognize and respond promptly. Choice B is incorrect because the peak effect of morphine via IV bolus is typically reached within a few minutes, not specifically 10 minutes. Choice C is incorrect because withholding morphine based solely on a respiratory rate less than 16/min may not be appropriate without considering other factors such as pain level, oxygen saturation, and overall respiratory status. Choice D is incorrect because administering morphine over 2 minutes may not prevent respiratory depression if it occurs rapidly after administration. Nurses should be vigilant for signs of respiratory depression regardless of the administration duration.
A nurse is caring for a client prescribed digoxin. Which of the following should alert the nurse to possible digitalis toxicity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Digitalis toxicity is a serious complication of digoxin therapy, particularly in older adults. Early symptoms include anorexia, nausea, and generalized weakness. Anorexia and weakness are common indicators of digitalis toxicity. Hyperactivity, hunger, tachycardia, increased urination, polyphagia, and polydipsia are not typical signs of digitalis toxicity. Monitoring for anorexia and weakness can help detect toxicity early and prevent life-threatening arrhythmias.
A nurse is assessing a client for potential drug interactions. Which of the following factors should the nurse consider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct! All of these factors should be considered when assessing a client for potential drug interactions. The client's diet can interact with certain medications, the client's age can affect metabolism and drug sensitivity, and genetic background can impact how the body processes medications. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to take into account all these factors to ensure safe and effective drug therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these factors alone can contribute to potential drug interactions, making it crucial to consider all of them together.
A client is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid potassium supplements. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Adding potassium supplements on top of this medication can lead to hyperkalemia, an elevated level of potassium in the blood, which can be dangerous. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods, limiting sodium intake, and increasing protein intake are not specifically related to the dietary considerations when taking spironolactone.
A nurse on a medical unit is preparing to administer alendronate 40 mg PO for an older adult client who has Paget's disease of the bone. Which of the following actions should be the nurse's priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to administer the medication to the client before breakfast in the morning. Alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach before breakfast to ensure optimal absorption. Choice B is incorrect because assisting the client to a chair is not directly related to the administration of alendronate. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to avoid taking alendronate with milk. Choice D is also incorrect as the priority at this moment is the correct administration of the medication in the hospital setting.
A nurse is providing discharge instructions about breast engorgement to a client who has decided not to breastfeed. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further instruction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Manually expressing breast milk will stimulate more milk production, which contradicts the goal of reducing milk supply in clients who choose not to breastfeed. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements that can help relieve breast engorgement without promoting further milk production.
A client has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following should the nurse educate the client about?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'It should be taken with meals.' Metformin should be taken with meals to minimize gastrointestinal side effects and improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect because metformin is actually associated with weight loss or weight neutrality. Choice C is incorrect as metformin is typically taken orally and not via injection. Choice D is also incorrect because metformin is not known to cause hypoglycemia as a primary side effect.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of hypoglycemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Fatigue. Fatigue, along with symptoms like shakiness and irritability, are common signs of hypoglycemia. Increased thirst (Choice A) is more indicative of hyperglycemia. Weight gain (Choice C) is not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not a common sign of hypoglycemia.
A client at risk for coronary artery disease seeks advice from a nurse. What should the nurse recommend to reduce the risk?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct recommendation to reduce the risk of coronary artery disease is to exercise for at least 150 minutes per week. Regular exercise is crucial in maintaining cardiovascular health and reducing the chances of developing heart disease. Increasing intake of saturated fats (Choice A) is counterproductive as it can raise cholesterol levels and contribute to arterial plaque formation. Taking iron supplements daily (Choice C) is not directly related to reducing the risk of coronary artery disease. Limiting fruits and vegetables in the diet (Choice D) is also not advisable, as they are essential components of a heart-healthy diet due to their high fiber and nutrient content.
A client at 28 weeks of gestation is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Nifedipine is the correct choice because it is a calcium channel blocker that helps relax the uterus and stop preterm labor. Oxytocin (Choice A) is used to induce labor, not to stop preterm labor. Dinoprostone (Choice C) and Misoprostol (Choice D) are prostaglandins used to induce labor and ripen the cervix, not to stop preterm labor.
A client newly prescribed sertraline is being taught by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice B, 'I might have trouble sleeping when I start this medication,' indicates understanding because insomnia is a common side effect of sertraline, especially when initiating the medication. This statement shows the client comprehends a potential adverse effect and is prepared for it. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking sertraline with or without meals does not significantly affect its efficacy. There is no specific contraindication about drinking orange juice while on sertraline. Feeling better immediately after starting the medication is unlikely as sertraline usually takes some time to exert its therapeutic effects.
A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg in 50 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 15 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse set the manual IV infusion to deliver?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Calculation: 10 gtt/mL × 50 mL ÷ 15 min = 33.33, rounded to 33 gtt/min. This ensures proper delivery of the medication over the prescribed time. Choice A is incorrect because it does not factor in the precise calculation based on the given data. Choice B is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate rate of infusion required. Choice D is incorrect as it does not align with the correct calculation based on the drop factor and infusion parameters provided in the question.
A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg in 50 ml of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 15 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse set the manual IV infusion to deliver? (Round to the nearest whole number)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the IV flow rate, you multiply the drop factor (10 gtt/mL) by the volume to be infused per minute (50 mL / 15 min). This gives you 10 gtt/mL × 50 mL / 15 min = 33.33. Rounding to the nearest whole number, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 33 gtt/min. Choice B (66 gtt/min) is incorrect as it is the result of doubling the correct answer. Choice C (10 gtt/min) is incorrect as it only considers the drop factor without accounting for the volume to be infused. Choice D (14 gtt/min) is incorrect as it miscalculates the infusion rate based on the given information.
A nurse is preparing to administer 1 unit of packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following findings should cause the nurse to delay the transfusion?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A temperature of 38.2°C (100.8°F) suggests the possibility of an underlying infection or fever, which should be evaluated before proceeding with the transfusion to prevent complications. Elevated temperature can indicate an immune response to incompatible blood components, increasing the risk of a transfusion reaction. The other vital signs and lab results provided are within acceptable ranges for administering packed RBCs, making choices A, B, and D less likely to cause a delay in the transfusion.
A nurse is planning to administer chlorothiazide 20 mg/kg/day PO divided equally and administered twice daily for a toddler who weighs 28.6 lb. The amount available is chlorothiazide oral suspension 250 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round to the nearest tenth)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To find the dose per administration, first convert the toddler's weight to kg: 28.6 lb ÷ 2.2 = 13 kg. Then calculate the total daily dose: 20 mg/kg × 13 kg = 260 mg/day. Since it is divided into two doses, each dose is 130 mg. The concentration of the oral suspension is 250 mg/5 mL = 50 mg/mL. Therefore, to find the volume needed per dose, divide the dose by the concentration: 130 mg ÷ 50 mg/mL = 2.6 mL per dose. Hence, the nurse should administer 2.6 mL per dose. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the dosage of chlorothiazide needed per dose based on the toddler's weight and the concentration of the oral suspension.
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