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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is preparing to administer 2.5 mL of medication intramuscularly to an adult client. Which site is safest for the nurse to use?
- A. Ventrogluteal
- B. Dorsogluteal
- C. Vastus lateralis
- D. Rectus femoris
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ventrogluteal.' The ventrogluteal site is recommended for intramuscular injections in adults because it is free of major blood vessels and nerves, reducing the risk of injury or complications. Choice B, 'Dorsogluteal,' is not recommended due to the proximity of the sciatic nerve and major blood vessels. Choices C and D, 'Vastus lateralis' and 'Rectus femoris,' are sites commonly used for intramuscular injections but are more suitable for pediatric or specific population groups, not typically for adults.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has Clostridium difficile (C. diff) infection. Which infection control measure should the nurse implement?
- A. Wear a face shield when entering the room
- B. Place the client in a private room
- C. Place the client in a negative pressure room
- D. Use alcohol-based hand rub following client care
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a private room. Clostridium difficile (C. diff) infection requires contact precautions, which include isolating the client in a private room to prevent the spread of infection to others. Wearing a face shield may be necessary in certain situations for protection but is not the primary measure for C. diff. Placing the client in a negative pressure room is not specifically indicated for C. diff unless the client has additional respiratory issues. Using alcohol-based hand rub following client care is not sufficient for C. diff control; thorough handwashing with soap and water is recommended due to the spore-forming nature of C. diff.
3. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client scheduled to receive chemotherapy for the first time
- B. A client post-appendectomy with diminished bowel sounds
- C. A client with hypothyroidism who is stuporous
- D. A client with burns requiring a sterile dressing change
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client with hypothyroidism who is stuporous should be assessed first as this may indicate a critical condition, possibly related to severe hypothyroidism. Stupor is a state of near-unconsciousness or insensibility, suggesting a decline in neurological function that requires immediate evaluation. Choices A, B, and D do not present with immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent assessment. While chemotherapy, post-appendectomy complications, and burn care are important, they do not pose the same level of immediate risk as a stuporous client.
4. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which result should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. WBC 3,000/mm³
- B. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
- C. Platelet count 250,000/mm³
- D. Serum sodium 140 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: WBC 3,000/mm³. A WBC count of 3,000/mm³ indicates neutropenia, which is a condition characterized by a low level of white blood cells, specifically neutrophils. Neutropenia increases the risk of infection and requires immediate medical attention, especially in clients undergoing chemotherapy. Reporting this result to the provider promptly is crucial for further evaluation and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose an immediate risk to the client's health. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL, platelet count of 250,000/mm³, and serum sodium of 140 mEq/L are all normal values and would not typically require immediate reporting unless there are specific concerns related to the individual client's condition.
5. A nurse is caring for a client receiving oxytocin IV for labor augmentation. The client’s contractions are occurring every 45 seconds and lasting 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
- B. Increase the oxytocin infusion
- C. Decrease the oxytocin infusion
- D. Maintain the oxytocin infusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation with contractions every 45 seconds lasting 90 seconds. This frequency and duration of contractions can lead to fetal distress. The appropriate nursing action is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion immediately to prevent complications. Increasing or maintaining the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the situation, while decreasing it may not be sufficient to address the issue effectively.
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